ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following outcomes would indicate successful treatment of diabetes insipidus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluid intake of less than 2,500mL. In diabetes insipidus, the body cannot properly regulate fluid balance, leading to excessive thirst and urination. Successful treatment aims to manage these symptoms by reducing fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Therefore, a decrease in fluid intake indicates successful treatment. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Blood pressure of 90/50mmHg - Blood pressure is not directly related to the treatment of diabetes insipidus. C: Pulse rate of 126 beats/min - Pulse rate is not a specific indicator of successful treatment for diabetes insipidus. D: Urine output of more than 200mL/hour - In diabetes insipidus, excessive urine output is a symptom of the condition, so an increase in urine output does not indicate successful treatment.
Question 2 of 5
Nurse Dennis provides health promotion to a group of male adults. He is correct when he states that clients with cirrhosis should include which measure to adhere to a home?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: limit daily alcohol intake. This is crucial for clients with cirrhosis as alcohol can exacerbate liver damage. Limiting alcohol intake helps prevent further harm to the liver and promotes overall health. Supplementation with multivitamins (choice A) can be beneficial, but not as essential as avoiding alcohol. Taking sleeping pills (choice B) may worsen liver function and is not recommended. Limiting contact at all times (choice D) is irrelevant to managing cirrhosis.
Question 3 of 5
The physician orders furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV STAT for an acutely fluid-overloaded patient. Why was the IV route likely chosen?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IV is the route of choice for rapid administration. IV route allows for quick onset of action, crucial in acutely fluid-overloaded patients needing immediate diuresis. Option A is incorrect as furosemide can be given orally too. Option C is less relevant in this urgent situation where speed is key. Option D is also incorrect as the side effects are not determined by route of administration.
Question 4 of 5
For the first 72 hours thyroidectomy surgery, the nurse would assess the client for Chvostek�s sign and Trousseau�s sign because they indicate which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypocalcemia. Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign are both indicators of hypocalcemia, which is a common complication following thyroidectomy surgery due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands. Chvostek's sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve and observing facial muscle twitching, while Trousseau's sign involves carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure. Both signs are sensitive indicators of hypocalcemia due to their association with neuromuscular irritability. Hypercalcemia (option C) and hyperkalemia (option D) are not typically associated with thyroidectomy surgery and would not present with these specific signs. Hypokalemia (option B) is not related to Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is evaluating goals and expected outcomes for a confused patient. Which finding indicates positive progress toward resolving the confusion? NursingStoreRN
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient correctly stating names of family members in the room indicates improved cognitive function and memory recall, which are positive signs of progress in resolving confusion. This demonstrates improved orientation and ability to recognize familiar individuals. Choices A and B indicate safety concerns and risk of falls, which are not related to resolving confusion. Choice C indicates pain management and mobility but does not directly reflect improvement in cognitive status.
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