Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is evaluating goals and expected outcomes for a confused patient. Which finding indicates positive progress toward resolving the confusion? NursingStoreRN

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient correctly stating names of family members in the room indicates improved cognitive function and memory recall, which are positive signs of progress in resolving confusion. This demonstrates improved orientation and ability to recognize familiar individuals. Choices A and B indicate safety concerns and risk of falls, which are not related to resolving confusion. Choice C indicates pain management and mobility but does not directly reflect improvement in cognitive status.

Question 2 of 5

A client with diabetes mellitus must learn how to self-administer insulin. The physician has prescribed 10 U of U- 100 regular insulin and 35 U of 100-U isophane insulin suspension (NPH) to be taken before breakfast. When teaching the client how to select and rotate insulin injection sites, the nurse should provide which instruction?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: �Rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region, not among different regions.� This instruction is important to prevent lipodystrophy and ensure consistent insulin absorption. Rotating sites within the same region helps maintain consistent insulin absorption rates and reduces the risk of developing scar tissue or fatty deposits. Injecting into healthy tissue with large blood vessels and nerves (choice A) can lead to inconsistent absorption. Administering insulin into areas of scar tissue or hypotrophy (choice C) can also disrupt absorption. Injecting into sites above muscles planned for exercise (choice D) can lead to unpredictable insulin absorption. Rotation within the same region optimizes insulin delivery and prevents complications.

Question 3 of 5

. A client is prescribed prednisone (Deltasone) daily. Which statement best explains why the nurse should instruct the client to take this drug in the morning?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because morning administration of prednisone mimics the body's natural corticosteroid secretion pattern. Cortisol, a natural corticosteroid, is typically highest in the morning and decreases throughout the day. By taking prednisone in the morning, the client aligns the drug's peak concentration with the body's natural cortisol levels, optimizing its therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect because while taking the drug at the same time daily is important for consistency, it does not specifically address the rationale for morning administration. Choice B is incorrect as the effectiveness of prednisone is not solely dependent on its half-life but also on alignment with the body's natural rhythm. Choice D is also incorrect as prednisone can be taken with food and does not necessarily require an empty stomach for optimal absorption.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse needs to administer an IM injection of 2.4 million units of penicillin G. it is supplied in a vial of 5,000,000 units of powder for injection. Instructions state to dilute with 8 mL of sterile water. How manu mL should the nurse draw up?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3.8 mL. To calculate the volume needed, first determine the concentration of the solution after reconstitution: 2.4 million units / 5,000,000 units = 0.48. Next, divide the desired dose by the concentration: 2.4 million units / 0.48 = 5 mL. Since the instructions state to dilute with 8 mL of sterile water, the total volume will be 13 mL. To find the volume of the powder to draw up, subtract the water volume from the total volume: 13 mL - 8 mL = 5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should draw up 5 mL of the reconstituted solution, which is equivalent to 3.8 mL of powder for injection. Incorrect choices: A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not consider the dilution factor of adding sterile water to the powder for injection. Option A is less than the

Question 5 of 5

A 36-year-old man is scheduled for a unilateral orchiectomy for treatment of testicular cancer. He is withdrawn and does not interact with the nurse. Which action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choosing answer D as correct: 1. Acknowledges patient's withdrawn behavior 2. Demonstrates empathy and concern 3. Open-ended question allows patient to express feelings 4. Encourages patient to communicate concerns Summary: - Option A assumes a specific problem without patient input - Option B focuses on verbalization, not necessarily addressing underlying concerns - Option C makes assumptions about patient's worries without allowing him to express himself

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