Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A few minutes after beginning a blood transfusion, the nurse notes that the client has chills, dyspnea, and urticaria. The nurse reports this to the physician immediately because the client probably is experiencing which problem?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A hemolytic reaction to mismatched blood. Chills, dyspnea, and urticaria are indicative of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, which occurs when the recipient's immune system attacks the donor's red blood cells. This can lead to various symptoms, including fever, chills, difficulty breathing, and hives. This type of reaction is most commonly seen with mismatched blood types. Option B (A hemolytic reaction to Rh-incompatible blood) is incorrect because Rh incompatibility typically leads to hemolytic disease of the newborn, not an immediate transfusion reaction. Option C (A hemolytic allergic reaction caused by bacterial contamination of donor blood) is incorrect as bacterial contamination would present with symptoms such as fever and sepsis, not chills, dyspnea, and urticaria. Option D (None of the above) is incorrect as the symptoms presented align with a hemolytic transfusion reaction.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following is a discharge criterion from the PACU for a patient following surgery?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxygen saturation above 90%. This is a discharge criterion because adequate oxygen saturation indicates the patient is breathing well and there is no immediate respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation below 90% (choice C) would indicate hypoxemia and would not be safe for discharge. IV narcotics given less than 15 minutes ago (choice B) can still be in effect and may impair the patient's ability to function post-surgery. IV narcotics given less than 30 minutes ago (choice D) is a longer timeframe but still not ideal for discharge as the effects of the narcotics may not have fully worn off.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse would evaluate that the patient understands what triggers allergic rhinitis by which of the following patient responses?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because airborne pollens and molds are common triggers for allergic rhinitis. Understanding these triggers helps in avoiding exposure and managing symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to allergic rhinitis triggers, focusing instead on other forms of medication or topical applications. By understanding airborne triggers, the patient can take appropriate preventive measures.

Question 4 of 5

Which instruction about insulin administration should the nurse give to a client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because maintaining consistency in the order of drawing different types of insulin into the syringe helps prevent medication errors. When mixing insulins, drawing them in the same sequence ensures the correct dose and prevents contamination. Explanation: A: Following the same order ensures accurate dosing and minimizes the risk of mixing up insulins. B: Shaking the vial can cause air bubbles which can affect the accuracy of the dose. C: Storing insulin in the freezer can damage the medication and alter its effectiveness. D: Cloudiness in intermediate-acting insulin is normal and does not indicate it should be discarded.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following questions or statements would be appropriate in eliciting further information when conducting a health history interview?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it encourages the patient to provide more detailed information about the cause of their pain, which can help in understanding the underlying health issues. Choice A is judgmental and may make the patient defensive. Choice B is closed-ended and does not prompt for specific details. Choice D is directive and may not be well-received by the patient. Asking the patient to elaborate on what caused their pain allows for a more open-ended response, leading to a more thorough health history assessment.

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