Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: Answer B is correct because a hemoglobin level of 11mg/dl and hematocrit level of 32% in a 78-year-old client are indicative of anemia. Conducting a thorough nutritional assessment is essential to identify potential causes of anemia such as iron deficiency or vitamin deficiencies. This assessment will help determine appropriate interventions to manage the anemia. Summary: A: Incorrect. These levels are indicative of anemia, not normal findings. C: Incorrect. Advising to repeat the test in three months may delay necessary interventions for the anemia. D: Incorrect. While anemia can be related to bone marrow degeneration, a nutritional assessment is needed to identify the specific cause in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately defines a transient ischemic attack (TIA) as a temporary interruption in blood flow to the brain. This response demonstrates the nurse's knowledge and ability to provide accurate information to the family member. Option A is incorrect because it deflects the question to the doctor without providing any information. Option B is incorrect because it inaccurately states that TIA causes permanent brain damage, which is not true. Option D is also incorrect because it simply restates the abbreviation without providing any explanation of what TIA actually means.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Mr. Dela Isla had a CVA, indicating the importance of managing his condition long-term. Step 2: Drug compliance is crucial in preventing further strokes and managing existing health issues. Step 3: Proper medication adherence can help control blood pressure, cholesterol, and blood sugar levels. Step 4: Emergency numbers are important but secondary to long-term management. Step 5: Relaxation techniques may be beneficial but not as essential as medication compliance for a CVA patient.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Report sudden onset of acute pain. This is the highest priority because sudden onset of acute pain postoperatively can indicate a serious complication such as hemorrhage or infection. Prompt reporting allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. A: Do not leave the patient unattended at any time - While important for safety, it is not the highest priority compared to addressing sudden onset of acute pain. B: Teach the patient not to bend over - Important for preventing complications postoperatively, but not as urgent as addressing sudden onset of acute pain. D: Apply sandbags to either side of the head - This intervention is not typically indicated for postoperative eye patients and would not address the potential serious complication of sudden onset of acute pain.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Assess the client's vital signs to confirm presence of fever. Step 2: Measure client's oral temperature to obtain accurate reading. Step 3: Document temperature and report findings to healthcare provider. Step 4: Initiate appropriate interventions based on temperature reading. Step 5: Reassess client's condition to evaluate effectiveness of interventions. Summary: Option A is correct as it directly addresses the cue of fever by confirming the temperature. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the need to assess the client's temperature for accurate evaluation and intervention.