Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Step 2: Inability to eat or retain food all through is a hallmark feature due to excessive vomiting. Step 3: This leads to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss. Step 4: Pallor, cyanosis, weakness, and smaller fundal height are not specific to hyperemesis gravidarum. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly relates to the primary symptom of excessive vomiting in hyperemesis gravidarum, while the other choices are not specific to this condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury. Rationale: 1. Physiologic response: Traumatic head injury can lead to autonomic dysregulation, causing increased sympathetic activity and elevated blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion. 2. Compensation mechanism: The body may increase blood pressure in response to hypotension to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow. 3. Treatment consideration: Understanding that elevated blood pressure can be a compensatory mechanism helps guide appropriate management strategies for traumatic head injury patients. Summary: A: Vasopressors can be used in traumatic head injury depending on the specific situation, and they are not always contraindicated. B: While hypotension can worsen outcomes in traumatic head injury, this choice overstates the risk without providing context. D: Identifying the cause of hypotension is crucial in managing traumatic head injury patients and should not be disregarded in favor of stabilizing the head injury.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Non-infective mastitis is associated with adenitis because it refers to inflammation of breast tissue without an infection. Adenitis specifically involves inflammation of the lymph nodes, which can be a common cause of non-infective mastitis. Cellulitis (A) is an infection of the skin and tissues beneath the skin, not specific to mastitis. Flat (B) and bifid (C) nipples are anatomical variations that do not directly relate to the inflammation of breast tissue.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consideration of prophylactic therapy. A 12-mm induration in a healthcare worker is considered positive for PPD. In the absence of active TB on chest radiograph, the next step is to consider prophylactic therapy to prevent the development of active TB. This is based on the guidelines for the management of latent TB infection. Choice A is incorrect as a positive PPD warrants further evaluation regardless of the chest radiograph result. Choice B, the Quantiferon assay, is not the next step after a positive PPD and negative chest radiograph. Choice D, beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures, is not indicated in this scenario as there is no evidence of active TB.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continue the current regimen. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used to treat ascites. The weight loss of 0.75 kg/day indicates that the current regimen is effective. Continuing the regimen is appropriate to avoid electrolyte imbalances. Discontinuing spironolactone (Choice B) can lead to rebound edema. Adding a loop diuretic (Choice C) may increase the risk of electrolyte disturbances. Large-volume paracentesis (Choice D) is reserved for cases of refractory ascites.