ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
A correct statement about an acute small for gestational age neonate is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an acute small for gestational age neonate will have all body parts proportionately reduced in size compared to a normal gestational age baby. This is due to intrauterine growth restriction. Choice B is incorrect because the head is not disproportionately larger. Choice C is incorrect as it states the body is larger than the head, which is not the case in SGA babies. Choice D is incorrect as SGA babies typically appear thin with a scaphoid abdomen, not plumpy.
Question 2 of 5
The AGACNP is treating a patient with ascites. After a regimen of 200 mg of spironolactone daily, the patient demonstrates a weight loss of 0.75 kgday. The best approach to this patients management is to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continue the current regimen. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used to treat ascites. The weight loss of 0.75 kg/day indicates that the current regimen is effective. Continuing the regimen is appropriate to avoid electrolyte imbalances. Discontinuing spironolactone (Choice B) can lead to rebound edema. Adding a loop diuretic (Choice C) may increase the risk of electrolyte disturbances. Large-volume paracentesis (Choice D) is reserved for cases of refractory ascites.
Question 3 of 5
Prolonged second stage of labor in nulliparous women is labor for more than
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 4 hours. This is based on the definition of prolonged second stage in nulliparous women, which is labor lasting more than 4 hours. This duration is considered abnormal and may lead to increased risk of maternal and fetal complications. Choice A (1 hour) is too short and does not meet the criteria for prolonged second stage. Choice B (2 hours) is also insufficient based on the established timeframe. Choice D (8 hours) exceeds the duration for prolonged second stage, indicating a more advanced stage of labor. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate timeframe for prolonged second stage in nulliparous women is 4 hours.
Question 4 of 5
Ms. Kweke�s specific management until delivery (obstructed labour):
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immediate caesarean section. In obstructed labor, prompt delivery is crucial to prevent harm to both the mother and the baby. A caesarean section is the most effective and timely intervention to safely deliver the baby and avoid complications such as fetal distress, maternal infection, and uterine rupture. Observation with pain relief (B) may delay necessary intervention, and manual repositioning of the fetus (C) is not sufficient in cases of obstructed labor. Choice D is incorrect because not all options are appropriate in this specific scenario.
Question 5 of 5
The earliest onset of cephalohematoma is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Six hours postnatally. Cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between a baby's skull and the periosteum. It typically appears several hours after birth due to trauma during delivery, causing bleeding under the periosteum. This allows time for the blood to accumulate and form a distinct swelling, making the onset around six hours postnatally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical timeline for the development of cephalohematoma.
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