ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
The commonest causative organism of pyelonephritis is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Escherichia coli. E. coli is the most common causative organism of pyelonephritis due to its prevalence in the gastrointestinal tract. It has specific virulence factors that enable it to ascend the urinary tract and cause infection. Streptococcus faecalis, Proteus vulgaris, and Staphylococcus pyogene are less commonly associated with pyelonephritis compared to E. coli.
Question 2 of 5
A correct statement about an acute small for gestational age neonate is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an acute small for gestational age neonate will have all body parts proportionately reduced in size compared to a normal gestational age baby. This is due to intrauterine growth restriction. Choice B is incorrect because the head is not disproportionately larger. Choice C is incorrect as it states the body is larger than the head, which is not the case in SGA babies. Choice D is incorrect as SGA babies typically appear thin with a scaphoid abdomen, not plumpy.
Question 3 of 5
Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consideration of prophylactic therapy. A 12-mm induration in a healthcare worker is considered positive for PPD. In the absence of active TB on chest radiograph, the next step is to consider prophylactic therapy to prevent the development of active TB. This is based on the guidelines for the management of latent TB infection. Choice A is incorrect as a positive PPD warrants further evaluation regardless of the chest radiograph result. Choice B, the Quantiferon assay, is not the next step after a positive PPD and negative chest radiograph. Choice D, beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures, is not indicated in this scenario as there is no evidence of active TB.
Question 4 of 5
Mr. Jefferson is a 59-year-old male who presents to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. His medical history is significant for dyslipidemia, and he takes 40 mgof simvastatin daily. He admits to drinking 6 to 10 bottles of beer nightly and to smoking 1 packs of cigarettes a day. He denies any history of chest pain or cardiovascular disease. He was in his usual state of good health until a couple of hours ago, when he developed this acute onset of severe pain in the upper abdomen. He says that he tried to wait it out at home but it was so bad he finally came in. His vital signs are as follows temperature 99.1F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 13784 mm Hg. The abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation with some guarding but no rebound tenderness. The AGACNP anticipates that which of the following laboratory tests will be abnormal?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A complete blood count and RBC differential. In this case, Mr. Jefferson presents with severe abdominal pain, which could indicate various conditions like pancreatitis, a possible complication of his heavy drinking. A complete blood count (CBC) with RBC differential can help assess for signs of inflammation or infection, which may be elevated in conditions like pancreatitis. The RBC differential can also provide insights into potential causes of abdominal pain, such as anemia or other blood disorders. Summary: - B: Liver function enzymes may be affected in conditions like alcoholic liver disease, but in this case, the focus should be on investigating acute abdominal pain. - C: Serum amylase, lipase, and glucose are typically checked in cases of suspected pancreatitis, but a CBC with RBC differential would provide a more comprehensive initial assessment. - D: A basic metabolic panel may not directly address the underlying cause of the acute abdominal pain and is not the most appropriate test to anticipate
Question 5 of 5
The main feature of Hyperemesis gravidarum is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Step 2: Inability to eat or retain food all through is a hallmark feature due to excessive vomiting. Step 3: This leads to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss. Step 4: Pallor, cyanosis, weakness, and smaller fundal height are not specific to hyperemesis gravidarum. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly relates to the primary symptom of excessive vomiting in hyperemesis gravidarum, while the other choices are not specific to this condition.
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