Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. After surgical removal of the ACTH-producing pituitary tumor in Cushing's syndrome, there may be a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones due to relief of negative feedback from the tumor. This can lead to a temporary increase in pituitary hormone levels before normalization. Rationale: 1. Rapid reversal of symptoms with good pituitary function (Choice A) is less likely as it takes time for the pituitary gland to recover and resume normal hormone production post-surgery. 2. Markedly improved dexamethasone suppression test (Choice C) is not expected immediately after surgery as it may take time for the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis to normalize. 3. Hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH (Choice D) are unlikely post-operatively in Cushing's syndrome as removal of the ACTH-producing tumor should lead to normalization of

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presenting diameter in brow presentation is Submentobregmatic (choice A) because it refers to the distance from the submentum (chin) to the bregma (anterior fontanelle). This is the appropriate measurement for the brow presentation as the brow is the prominent part between the forehead and the chin. Choice B (Suboccipitofrontal) is incorrect because it refers to the distance from the subocciput to the frontal bone, which is not relevant to brow presentation. Choice C (Occipitalfrontal) is incorrect because it describes the distance from the occiput to the frontal bone, which again is not specific to brow presentation. Choice D (Mentovertical) is incorrect as it denotes the distance from the chin to the vertex, which is not the relevant measurement for brow presentation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Escherichia coli. E. coli is the most common causative organism of pyelonephritis due to its prevalence in the gastrointestinal tract. It has specific virulence factors that enable it to ascend the urinary tract and cause infection. Streptococcus faecalis, Proteus vulgaris, and Staphylococcus pyogene are less commonly associated with pyelonephritis compared to E. coli.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consideration of prophylactic therapy. A 12-mm induration in a healthcare worker is considered positive for PPD. In the absence of active TB on chest radiograph, the next step is to consider prophylactic therapy to prevent the development of active TB. This is based on the guidelines for the management of latent TB infection. Choice A is incorrect as a positive PPD warrants further evaluation regardless of the chest radiograph result. Choice B, the Quantiferon assay, is not the next step after a positive PPD and negative chest radiograph. Choice D, beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures, is not indicated in this scenario as there is no evidence of active TB.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Fine needle aspiration does not allow grading of tumors. Rationale: 1. Fine needle aspiration (FNA) collects cells for cytology evaluation, not tissue for grading. 2. Grading requires evaluation of tissue architecture, which is not possible with FNA. 3. FNA is useful for diagnosis but not for determining tumor grade. Summary: A: Incorrect - Excisional biopsy is preferred over incisional biopsy to obtain the entire tumor for diagnosis and grading. B: Incorrect - Core needle biopsy has a lower false positive rate compared to fine needle aspiration. D: Incorrect - Core needle and incisional biopsies differ in the amount of tissue sampled and potential for false results.