ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
R. R. is a 61-year-old male patient who presents with a chief complaint of fever and urinary symptoms. He was in his usual state of good health when for no apparent reason he developed pain in his back and perineal region, as well as fever and chills. He presents as septic. He had urinary hesitancy and decreased stream but now reports that he has not passed urine in more than 12 hours. Palpation of the lower abdomen is consistent with bladder distention. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is contraindicated in this circumstance?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluoroquinolone antibiotics. In this case, the patient presents with signs of sepsis and urinary retention, which are indicative of a possible prostatic abscess. Administering fluoroquinolone antibiotics could potentially mask the symptoms and delay further evaluation and treatment of the abscess. This can lead to worsening infection and sepsis. Therefore, the AGACNP should avoid prescribing fluoroquinolones until further evaluation is done to confirm or rule out a prostatic abscess. Incorrect choices: A: Digital prostate examination - This could help in assessing the prostate for abscess or other abnormalities. B: Urinary catheterization - Necessary to relieve bladder distention and assess urine output. D: Drainage of prostate abscess - If confirmed, drainage would be the appropriate intervention to address the abscess.
Question 2 of 5
How can healthcare providers support women after stillbirth?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: 1. Emotional counseling helps women cope with grief. 2. Explaining causes provides closure and understanding. 3. Supporting future pregnancies ensures better outcomes. 4. All options address different aspects of support needed after stillbirth. 5. Therefore, providing emotional counseling, explaining causes, and supporting future pregnancies collectively offer comprehensive care.
Question 3 of 5
Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consideration of prophylactic therapy. A 12-mm induration in a healthcare worker is considered positive for PPD. In the absence of active TB on chest radiograph, the next step is to consider prophylactic therapy to prevent the development of active TB. This is based on the guidelines for the management of latent TB infection. Choice A is incorrect as a positive PPD warrants further evaluation regardless of the chest radiograph result. Choice B, the Quantiferon assay, is not the next step after a positive PPD and negative chest radiograph. Choice D, beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures, is not indicated in this scenario as there is no evidence of active TB.
Question 4 of 5
Mr. Jefferson is a 59-year-old male who presents to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. His medical history is significant for dyslipidemia, and he takes 40 mgof simvastatin daily. He admits to drinking 6 to 10 bottles of beer nightly and to smoking 1 packs of cigarettes a day. He denies any history of chest pain or cardiovascular disease. He was in his usual state of good health until a couple of hours ago, when he developed this acute onset of severe pain in the upper abdomen. He says that he tried to wait it out at home but it was so bad he finally came in. His vital signs are as follows temperature 99.1F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 13784 mm Hg. The abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation with some guarding but no rebound tenderness. The AGACNP anticipates that which of the following laboratory tests will be abnormal?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A complete blood count and RBC differential. In this case, Mr. Jefferson presents with severe abdominal pain, which could indicate various conditions like pancreatitis, a possible complication of his heavy drinking. A complete blood count (CBC) with RBC differential can help assess for signs of inflammation or infection, which may be elevated in conditions like pancreatitis. The RBC differential can also provide insights into potential causes of abdominal pain, such as anemia or other blood disorders. Summary: - B: Liver function enzymes may be affected in conditions like alcoholic liver disease, but in this case, the focus should be on investigating acute abdominal pain. - C: Serum amylase, lipase, and glucose are typically checked in cases of suspected pancreatitis, but a CBC with RBC differential would provide a more comprehensive initial assessment. - D: A basic metabolic panel may not directly address the underlying cause of the acute abdominal pain and is not the most appropriate test to anticipate
Question 5 of 5
R. S. is a 66-year-old female with Cushings syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. The tumor is readily isolated by imaging, and the patient had an uneventful surgery. When seeing her in follow-up, the AGACNP anticipates
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. After surgical removal of the ACTH-producing pituitary tumor in Cushing's syndrome, there may be a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones due to relief of negative feedback from the tumor. This can lead to a temporary increase in pituitary hormone levels before normalization. Rationale: 1. Rapid reversal of symptoms with good pituitary function (Choice A) is less likely as it takes time for the pituitary gland to recover and resume normal hormone production post-surgery. 2. Markedly improved dexamethasone suppression test (Choice C) is not expected immediately after surgery as it may take time for the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis to normalize. 3. Hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH (Choice D) are unlikely post-operatively in Cushing's syndrome as removal of the ACTH-producing tumor should lead to normalization of
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