microbiology chapter 1 test bank

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it encompasses the true statements regarding the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections. A: Bacteriuria of less than 10^5 can be significant in treated patients due to the development of antibiotic resistance. B: Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella typhi, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis may be significant regardless of quantity due to their pathogenic nature. C: Leukocyturia indicates inflammation, and even a lower number of leukocytes can be clinically significant. Therefore, option D covers all these aspects making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium is a Gram-negative diplococcus, oxidase-positive, and fermentative. Neisseria meningitidis is known to cause respiratory infections and is commonly found in sputum cultures of patients with such infections. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (B) is also a Gram-negative diplococcus but is not fermentative. Moraxella catarrhalis (C) is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (D) is not a diplococcus and is not fermentative. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent based on the given characteristics.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CDC. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is responsible for establishing hand-washing guidelines in healthcare settings to prevent infections. CDC is a leading authority in public health and provides evidence-based recommendations. OSHA (A) focuses on workplace safety, NIAD (C) is not a recognized organization, and WHO (D) provides global health guidelines but CDC is the primary authority for hand hygiene in the US healthcare system.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: aspergillosis and candidiasis. Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is commonly used in diagnosing these fungal infections. Galactomannan is a component of the cell wall of Aspergillus species, while free mannan is associated with Candida species. This detection method helps in identifying these specific fungal infections accurately. B: Syphilis is caused by a bacterium, Treponema pallidum, and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection. C: Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection caused by the Leptospira species and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection. D: HIV infection is a viral infection caused by the human immunodeficiency virus and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. Clostridium tetani is responsible for causing tetanus by producing a neurotoxin called tetanospasmin. This neurotoxin blocks inhibitory signals in the central nervous system, leading to muscle spasms and stiffness characteristic of tetanus. Clostridium perfringens (B) causes gas gangrene, Streptococcus pyogenes (C) causes strep throat, and Escherichia coli (D) can cause gastrointestinal infections but not tetanus. Therefore, based on the specific pathogen and its mechanism of action, Clostridium tetani is the correct answer.