Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet

Questions 164

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by inflammation and bleeding of the gingival tissues, often caused by bacterial plaque accumulation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Gingivitis is a dental condition characterized by inflammation and bleeding of the gingival tissues. It is often caused by poor oral hygiene leading to the accumulation of bacterial plaque along the gumline. The plaque contains bacteria that release toxins, leading to inflammation of the gums. If left untreated, gingivitis can progress to periodontitis, a more serious condition that affects the supporting structures of the teeth. Regular dental cleanings, proper oral hygiene practices, and professional treatment can help manage and prevent gingivitis.

Question 2 of 5

A patient admitted to the ICU develops severe sepsis with refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's septic shock?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is experiencing refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation, indicating the presence of septic shock. In septic shock, systemic vasodilation and vascular hyporesponsiveness contribute to hypotension. Therefore, the primary management approach is to restore vascular tone and blood pressure to maintain organ perfusion. Administering vasopressor medications (Choice A) is the crucial intervention to achieve this goal. Vasopressors, such as norepinephrine or vasopressin, constrict blood vessels and increase blood pressure, helping to stabilize the patient in septic shock. While options B and C (performing blood cultures and initiating broad-spectrum antibiotics) are important for identifying the causative pathogen and treating the infection, they are secondary to the immediate need for hemodynamic support in septic shock. Prophylactic anticoagulation (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for

Question 3 of 5

Upon interview, the patient reported the she often felt nauseated, restless, perspired a lot, felt fatigued, and was often hungry when she was younger. What do these signs indicate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The signs reported by the patient, such as feeling nauseated, restless, sweating excessively, fatigue, and increased hunger, are indicative of hypoglycemia, which is characterized by low blood sugar levels. In individuals with hypoglycemia, these symptoms can occur when the blood glucose levels drop too low, leading to disturbances in the body's energy supply. This is common in individuals who may have experienced episodes of low blood sugar, especially if they have a history of diabetes or are taking medications that lower blood sugar levels. Diabetic nephropathy, hyperglycemia, and diabetic retinopathy are conditions associated with high blood sugar levels and are not consistent with the symptoms described by the patient.

Question 4 of 5

A woman in active labor presents with prolonged second stage, characterized by ineffective pushing efforts and slow fetal descent. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to this abnormal labor pattern?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Pelvic floor dysfunction can contribute to a prolonged second stage of labor by impairing the ability of the woman to effectively push during contractions. This can result in inefficient pushing efforts and slow fetal descent. The nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of pelvic floor dysfunction, such as difficulty controlling bowel movements or urine leakage, as addressing this issue may help improve the progress of labor. Maternal fatigue, fetal macrosomia (larger than average baby size), and uterine hyperstimulation are other factors that can impact labor but are less likely to specifically contribute to ineffective pushing efforts and slow fetal descent in the second stage of labor.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed lisinopril for blood pressure management. Which adverse effect is most commonly associated with lisinopril therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Dry cough is the most commonly reported adverse effect associated with lisinopril therapy. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and the mechanism behind the cough is not completely understood but is thought to be related to the accumulation of bradykinin and substance P. This annoying dry cough can be a persistent issue for some patients on lisinopril, and it typically resolves once the medication is discontinued. Patients who experience this side effect should not ignore it and should consult their healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible alternative medication options. Hyperkalemia, hypertension, and bradycardia are not commonly associated adverse effects of lisinopril therapy.

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