Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet

Questions 164

ATI RN

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Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for adult CPR?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for adult CPR is 30 compressions to 2 breaths. This means that after every 30 chest compressions, two rescue breaths should be given. This ratio helps in maintaining oxygen circulation in the body while also ensuring that the heart is being effectively pumped to circulate blood. The emphasis on chest compressions is critical in maintaining blood flow to vital organs during cardiac arrest, while the rescue breaths help in providing oxygen to the patient's lungs. This ratio is recommended by organizations like the American Heart Association for performing high-quality adult CPR.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by the involuntary grinding or clenching of teeth, often leading to tooth wear, muscle pain, and temporomandibular joint dysfunction?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Bruxism is the dental condition characterized by the involuntary grinding or clenching of teeth, often occurring during sleep. This habitual behavior can lead to tooth wear, muscle pain, headaches, and temporomandibular joint dysfunction. Dental caries (choice A) refers to tooth decay, while attrition (choice B) specifically refers to the wearing down of teeth due to forces like chewing. Periodontitis (choice D) is a condition involving inflammation and infection of the gums and supporting structures of the teeth. Among the choices provided, bruxism is the most fitting description for the condition characterized by tooth grinding and clenching.

Question 3 of 5

When a patient is diagnosed to have pneumonia, the breath sounds detected by the nurse on auscultation of the affected area would be ______.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is diagnosed with pneumonia, the breath sounds detected by the nurse on auscultation of the affected area would typically include fine crackles. Fine crackles are discontinuous, high-pitched crackling or rattling sounds heard during inspiration that indicate the presence of fluid in the small airways or alveoli. These crackles are caused by the movement of secretions or exudate within the bronchioles or alveoli, which is a common characteristic of pneumonia. Wheezing sounds are usually associated with conditions such as asthma, bronchitis, or COPD and are caused by narrowed airways. Stridor is a high-pitched, crowing sound that typically indicates an obstruction in the upper airway and is often heard in cases of laryngeal inflammation or foreign body aspiration. Deep and low-pitched breath sounds are more characteristic of conditions like chronic bronchitis.

Question 4 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described is characteristic of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition typically presents with sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye may appear red due to conjunctival injection, and there may be a steamy cornea due to corneal edema. The mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil is a key finding in angle-closure glaucoma, as the iris bombe (forward movement of the peripheral iris) blocks the drainage angle, leading to increased intraocular pressure. If left untreated, acute angle-closure glaucoma can result in irreversible vision loss. Immediate intervention is crucial to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for definitive treatment is necessary in cases of suspected acute angle-closure glaucoma.

Question 5 of 5

A patient is prescribed an antipsychotic medication for the management of schizophrenia. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Antipsychotic medications, especially first-generation antipsychotics, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) as an adverse effect. EPS include symptoms such as muscle rigidity, tremors, akathisia (restlessness), and tardive dyskinesia (involuntary movements of the face and body). These symptoms are due to the medications' effects on the dopamine system in the brain. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the patient closely for EPS because they can be uncomfortable, distressing, and may impact the patient's quality of life and medication adherence. Early recognition and management of EPS are essential to prevent further complications and improve the patient's overall well-being.

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