Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presentation of a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, above the clavicle, along with the cytology showing clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm is most indicative of a parathyroid adenoma. Parathyroid adenomas are benign tumors derived from the parathyroid gland that can produce excess parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to hyperparathyroidism. The characteristic histology of parathyroid adenomas includes chief cells with abundant granular cytoplasm.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for the palliative nurse to prioritize in this situation is to arrange for family members or loved ones to be present at the patient's bedside. Having loved ones nearby can provide emotional support, comfort, and reassurance to the patient during their final moments. This can help alleviate the fear and anxiety the patient is experiencing about dying alone. Additionally, it can contribute to a sense of connectedness and peace for both the patient and their loved ones during this challenging time. Offering practical solutions to address the patient's emotional needs is key in providing holistic palliative care.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When providing health education to a patient, using clear and simple language is an essential aspect of effective communication. Medical terminology can be confusing and overwhelming for individuals without a medical background. By using language that the patient can easily understand, you improve their comprehension of the information being conveyed. Speaking quickly or using complex terms can actually hinder communication and may lead to misunderstanding. Clear and simple language helps ensure that the patient fully grasps the information and can make informed decisions about their health.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In a 55-year-old postmenopausal woman presenting with vaginal bleeding and a healthy cervix on examination, the most likely cause would be a cervical polyp. Cervical polyps are benign growths that can occur on the cervix and are often asymptomatic but can occasionally cause postmenopausal bleeding. Their appearance on examination would typically be a non-malignant finding with no cervical motion tenderness. Cervical cancer, endometrial cancer, and vaginal cancer would typically present with different examination findings and risk factors.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is experiencing refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation, indicating the presence of septic shock. In septic shock, systemic vasodilation and vascular hyporesponsiveness contribute to hypotension. Therefore, the primary management approach is to restore vascular tone and blood pressure to maintain organ perfusion. Administering vasopressor medications (Choice A) is the crucial intervention to achieve this goal. Vasopressors, such as norepinephrine or vasopressin, constrict blood vessels and increase blood pressure, helping to stabilize the patient in septic shock. While options B and C (performing blood cultures and initiating broad-spectrum antibiotics) are important for identifying the causative pathogen and treating the infection, they are secondary to the immediate need for hemodynamic support in septic shock. Prophylactic anticoagulation (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for