ATI RN
Endocrinology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Secondary hypothyroidism is not featured by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fine hairs. In secondary hypothyroidism, the pituitary gland fails to produce enough thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), resulting in low thyroid hormone levels. Fine hairs (or hair thinning) is a symptom of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Normal cholesterol levels (Choice A) are seen in secondary hypothyroidism due to decreased metabolic rate. Menorrhagia (Choice B) can occur due to hormonal imbalances caused by untreated hypothyroidism. Low TSH levels (Choice C) are a characteristic feature of secondary hypothyroidism as the pituitary gland is not producing enough TSH to stimulate the thyroid gland.
Question 2 of 5
Excess prolactin gives rise to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Excess prolactin causes gynaecomastia due to its stimulatory effect on breast tissue growth in males. Prolactin inhibits the release of testosterone, leading to an imbalance in sex hormones and breast tissue development. Acromegaly is caused by excess growth hormone, not prolactin. Early menopause is unrelated to prolactin levels. Anaemia is typically not associated with prolactin excess. Thus, gynaecomastia is the most appropriate outcome of excess prolactin.
Question 3 of 5
All of the following would be considered contraindications to use of oral contraceptive pills except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Kidney disease. Oral contraceptive pills are contraindicated in patients with kidney disease due to the risk of impaired drug clearance and potential adverse effects on renal function. Breast cancer (A), liver disease (C), and prior history of deep venous thrombosis (D) are all contraindications to the use of oral contraceptives due to increased risks of complications such as thrombosis or exacerbation of underlying conditions.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following visual field deficits is most likely present in a patient with pituitary adenoma compressing his optic chiasm?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bi-temporal hemianopia. Pituitary adenoma compressing the optic chiasm typically leads to bi-temporal hemianopia due to compression of the crossing fibers from the nasal visual fields. This results in loss of peripheral vision in both temporal visual fields. A: Bilateral inferior visual field deficits and B: Bilateral superior visual field deficits are less likely as they are not typical patterns associated with optic chiasm compression. D: Right homonymous hemianopia is incorrect as it is not associated with compression of the optic chiasm by a pituitary adenoma.
Question 5 of 5
Erythropoietin is secreted from:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Erythropoietin is primarily secreted from the kidney, specifically by the Juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney's cortex. These cells are responsible for sensing oxygen levels and regulating erythropoietin production accordingly. Mesenchymal tumors, cerebellar haemangioblastoma, and lymphoma are not associated with erythropoietin secretion, making them incorrect choices. Mesenchymal tumors originate from connective tissues, cerebellar haemangioblastoma is a type of brain tumor, and lymphoma is a cancer of the lymphatic system. Only the Juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney have the physiological role of secreting erythropoietin in response to hypoxia.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access