Endocrinology Practice Questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for choice C (FSH) being correct: 1. FSH stimulates Sertoli cells in the testes. 2. Sertoli cells produce androgen binding globulin (ABG). 3. ABG binds to testosterone, regulating its availability. 4. FSH indirectly influences testosterone levels via ABG production. Summary of incorrect choices: A. LH stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone, not Sertoli cells. B. GnRH regulates the release of FSH and LH but does not directly stimulate ABG production. D. Oxytocin is not involved in the regulation of Sertoli cells or ABG production in males.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phaeochromocytoma. Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type I (MEN I) is characterized by tumors in the pituitary, pancreas, and parathyroid glands. Phaeochromocytoma is not typically associated with MEN I. Phaeochromocytoma is commonly seen in MEN II syndrome. Therefore, A is the correct answer. Choice B, C, and D are incorrect as they are all associated with MEN I based on the characteristic tumor involvement in the pituitary, pancreas, and parathyroid glands, respectively.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stress. Stress triggers the release of growth hormone through the activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. When the body is under stress, the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release growth hormone. This hormone then stimulates growth and cell reproduction. Glucocorticoids (A) and somatostatin (B) actually inhibit the release of growth hormone. Obesity (D) can lead to decreased growth hormone release due to disrupted hormonal regulation. In summary, stress is the correct answer as it directly stimulates the release of growth hormone, while the other choices inhibit or have a negative impact on growth hormone release.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bi-temporal hemianopia. Pituitary adenoma compressing the optic chiasm typically leads to bi-temporal hemianopia due to compression of the crossing fibers from the nasal visual fields. This results in loss of peripheral vision in both temporal visual fields. A: Bilateral inferior visual field deficits and B: Bilateral superior visual field deficits are less likely as they are not typical patterns associated with optic chiasm compression. D: Right homonymous hemianopia is incorrect as it is not associated with compression of the optic chiasm by a pituitary adenoma.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute pancreatitis. Hyperparathyroidism is not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by excessive production of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood. Nephrocalcinosis, palpable neck swelling, and pseudogout are commonly seen in hyperparathyroidism due to the effects of elevated calcium levels on the kidneys, parathyroid glands, and joints, respectively. Acute pancreatitis, on the other hand, is more commonly associated with gallstones, alcohol consumption, or certain medications, rather than hyperparathyroidism.