Endocrinology Practice Questions

Questions 55

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Endocrinology Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Gynaecomastia may be produced after treatment with all except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gynaecomastia is a known side effect of spironolactone, digitalis, and cimetidine. 2. Rifampicin is not associated with gynaecomastia. 3. Rifampicin is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis and other infections. 4. The mechanism of action of rifampicin does not involve hormonal changes that could lead to gynaecomastia. Summary of incorrect choices: - A: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause gynaecomastia. - B: Digitalis (digoxin) can lead to gynaecomastia as a side effect. - C: Cimetidine, an H2 receptor antagonist, is also known to cause gynaecomastia.

Question 2 of 5

What do Leydig cells produce?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Leydig cells are found in the testes and are responsible for producing testosterone, a crucial male sex hormone. This hormone is essential for the development of male reproductive organs, secondary sexual characteristics, and sperm production. Oestrogen is primarily produced by the ovaries in females. Androgen binding globulin is a protein that binds to testosterone in the bloodstream but is not produced by Leydig cells. Semen is produced by the accessory glands in the male reproductive system, not by Leydig cells. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Testosterone.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following visual field deficits is most likely present in a patient with pituitary adenoma compressing his optic chiasm?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bi-temporal hemianopia. Pituitary adenoma compressing the optic chiasm typically leads to bi-temporal hemianopia due to compression of the crossing fibers from the nasal visual fields. This results in loss of peripheral vision in both temporal visual fields. A: Bilateral inferior visual field deficits and B: Bilateral superior visual field deficits are less likely as they are not typical patterns associated with optic chiasm compression. D: Right homonymous hemianopia is incorrect as it is not associated with compression of the optic chiasm by a pituitary adenoma.

Question 4 of 5

All of the following are consistent with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neovascularization. Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is characterized by early changes such as retinal vascular microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, and cotton-wool spots. Neovascularization is a feature of proliferative diabetic retinopathy, not non-proliferative. Neovascularization refers to the growth of abnormal new blood vessels in the retina, which can lead to severe vision loss if not treated promptly. In summary, neovascularization is not consistent with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy, as it is a hallmark of the proliferative stage.

Question 5 of 5

Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) concentration is associated with:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) concentration is associated with tetany because PTH helps regulate calcium levels in the blood. When calcium levels are low, PTH is released to stimulate the release of calcium from bones and increase calcium absorption from the intestines. Tetany is characterized by muscle cramps and spasms due to low calcium levels, which can occur when PTH levels are elevated. A: Vitamin D toxicity is associated with high levels of calcium in the blood, not low calcium levels as seen in tetany. B: Rickets is a condition caused by vitamin D deficiency, leading to impaired bone growth and development, not directly related to elevated PTH levels. D: Reduced excretion of phosphate is not directly linked to elevated PTH levels, as PTH primarily regulates calcium levels.

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