Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Platelet count. Zidovudine (AZT) is known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased platelet production. Monitoring platelet count is crucial to detect early signs of thrombocytopenia, a common adverse effect of AZT. Rationale: A) RBC count: AZT can cause anemia, not specifically affecting the RBC count. B) Serum calcium: AZT does not typically affect calcium levels. C) Fasting blood glucose: AZT can cause hyperglycemia, but fasting blood glucose monitoring is not as critical as monitoring platelet count for AZT therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because the kidneys do not reabsorb carbon dioxide to regulate acid-base balance. Carbon dioxide is mainly regulated by the lungs through respiration. The kidneys regulate acid-base balance by excreting hydrogen ions, reabsorbing or excreting bicarbonate (HCO3-) into the blood, and retaining or excreting hydrogen ions. Reabsorbing carbon dioxide is not a mechanism utilized by the kidneys for acid-base balance. Choices A, C, and D are correct mechanisms involved in acid-base balance regulation by the kidneys.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To stimulate bone growth. Estrogen and progesterone are hormones that play a crucial role in maintaining bone density and promoting bone growth. In postmenopausal women or individuals with conditions like aplastic anemia, bone health can be compromised. Estrogen helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength, while progesterone also contributes to bone formation. Therefore, in this scenario, these medications are likely prescribed to help improve bone health in the woman with aplastic anemia. Incorrect choices: B: Estrogen and progesterone do not directly enhance sodium and potassium levels. C: Estrogen and progesterone do not regulate fluid balance absorption directly. D: Estrogen and progesterone do not specifically promote utilization and storage of fluids.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium is a major cause of peptic ulcers by weakening the protective mucous layer of the stomach and duodenum. Research has shown a strong association between H. pylori infection and peptic ulcer development. Genetic defects in the gastric mucosa (choice A) are not a proven cause of peptic ulcers. While a high-fat diet (choice C) can exacerbate symptoms, it is not the primary cause. Work-related stress (choice D) may exacerbate symptoms but is not a direct cause of peptic ulcers. Therefore, choice B is the most supported and logical answer based on current research findings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Loratadine is typically dosed once daily, not twice daily, for allergic rhinitis. 2. Taking it twice daily may increase the risk of side effects without added benefit. 3. The client's dosing schedule reflects a misunderstanding of the medication regimen. 4. Option A is incorrect because loratadine is available in 10mg tablets. 5. Option B is incorrect as loratadine can be taken with or without food. 6. Option D is incorrect as Claritin is a common trade name for loratadine.