ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse identifies a fall risk when assessing a patient upon admission. The nurse and the patient agree that the goal is for the patient to remain free from falls. However, the patient fell just before shift change. Which action is the nurse�s priority when evaluating the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Identify factors interfering with goal achievement. This is the priority action because it focuses on understanding what caused the patient to fall despite the goal of preventing falls. By identifying the factors interfering with goal achievement, the nurse can make necessary adjustments to the care plan to prevent future falls. Choice B is incorrect because counseling the nursing assistive personnel and removing the fall risk sign does not address the root cause of the fall. Choice C is incorrect because shifting responsibility to the charge nurse for documentation does not address the immediate need to assess and address the factors contributing to the fall. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the fall is important but not the priority when the immediate concern is understanding why the fall occurred.
Question 2 of 5
A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client�s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following would the nurse use to document a finding that the patient�s ear is draining?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Otorrhea. Otorrhea refers to the discharge of fluid from the ear, indicating an abnormal finding of ear drainage. This term specifically describes the symptom of ear drainage, making it the most appropriate choice for documenting this finding. Otalgia (choice B) refers to ear pain, ototoxic (choice C) refers to substances that are harmful to the ear, and tinnitus (choice D) refers to ringing in the ears, none of which accurately describe ear drainage. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it specifically addresses the symptom of ear drainage.
Question 4 of 5
A patient who is being tested for HIV asks what tests are used. The nurse would correct in stating that the tests used to confirm HIV infection are which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ELISA and Western Blot. The rationale is as follows: ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) and Western Blot are specific tests used to confirm HIV infection by detecting antibodies or antigens related to the virus. ELISA is the initial screening test, while Western Blot is the confirmatory test. These tests are highly sensitive and specific for HIV detection. Choice A is incorrect because CD4+ cell count and thymus function are not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are used to monitor disease progression and immune function in HIV-positive individuals. Choice C is incorrect because B-cell and T-cell count are also not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are indicators of immune system health but not specific for HIV diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because while CD4+ and viral load tests are used in monitoring HIV progression, ELISA is the main confirmatory test for HIV diagnosis, and viral load is not typically used for initial
Question 5 of 5
The nurse understands that an anaphylactic reaction is considered which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. In Type I hypersensitivity, anaphylactic reactions involve immediate IgE-mediated responses to allergens, leading to histamine release and potentially life-threatening symptoms. This type of reaction is characterized by rapid onset and systemic involvement. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Type III reactions involve immune complex deposition leading to inflammation (B), Type II reactions involve cytotoxic antibodies targeting cells (C), and Type IV reactions involve delayed cell-mediated responses (D).
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access