Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information reported by the patient, such as their feelings, emotions, and perceptions. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is an example of subjective data. The other choices (A, B, D) are objective data because they are observable and measurable by the nurse. Temperature (A) and wound appearance (B) are physical observations, while the patient pacing the floor (D) is a behavior that can be observed. It is important for nurses to differentiate between subjective and objective data to provide accurate assessments and care for their patients.

Question 2 of 5

When caring for a client diagnosed with a brain tumor of the parietal lobe, the nurse expects to assess:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tactile agnosia. When assessing a client with a parietal lobe brain tumor, the nurse would expect to assess for tactile agnosia as the parietal lobe is responsible for processing sensory information, including touch and spatial awareness. Tactile agnosia is the inability to recognize objects by touch. This impairment is commonly associated with parietal lobe lesions. Short-term memory impairment (A) is more commonly associated with temporal lobe lesions. Seizures (B) are more commonly associated with frontal lobe lesions. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (D) is associated with occipital lobe lesions. In summary, the parietal lobe tumor would likely manifest as tactile agnosia due to its role in sensory processing, making it the most relevant assessment finding in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse administers chemotherapeutic drugs to a client with cancer. What adverse effects are most common?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapeutic drugs commonly cause nausea and vomiting due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system. This is because these drugs can irritate the stomach lining and trigger the vomiting center in the brain. Nausea and vomiting are well-documented side effects of chemotherapy and are often managed with antiemetic medications. A: Painful mouth sores are a common side effect of some chemotherapeutic drugs, but they are not the most common adverse effect. C: Frequent diarrhea can occur as a side effect of chemotherapy, but it is less common than nausea and vomiting. D: Constipation is not a common adverse effect of chemotherapeutic drugs; in fact, diarrhea is more commonly seen.

Question 4 of 5

Which drug class is used to reduce symptoms of muscle weakness from myasthenia gravis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticholinesterase drugs. These drugs increase acetylcholine levels at neuromuscular junctions, helping improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis. Adrenergic drugs (B) and beta-blocker drugs (D) are not typically used to treat muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. Anticholinergic drugs (C) can worsen symptoms by blocking acetylcholine receptors, making them an inappropriate choice for this condition.

Question 5 of 5

A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client�s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.

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