Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale: 1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer. 2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer. 3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because ranking all the patient's nursing diagnoses in order of priority allows the nurse to address the most critical needs first. By prioritizing based on the urgency and potential impact on the patient's health, the nurse can ensure that interventions are carried out effectively. B is incorrect because priorities may need to be adjusted based on the patient's changing condition. C is incorrect as priorities should consider not only physiological but also psychological and sociological factors. D is incorrect because time is an influencing factor, but it should not be the sole consideration when prioritizing interventions.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperparathyroidism. This disorder is characterized by excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood. The symptoms described in the question - bone pain, weakness, irritability, and depression - are all associated with hypercalcemia, a common manifestation of hyperparathyroidism. Additionally, the client's anorexia and increased urination can be attributed to the effects of hypercalcemia on the gastrointestinal and renal systems. Diabetes mellitus (choice A) involves high blood sugar levels and is not associated with the symptoms described. Hypoparathyroidism (choice B) is characterized by low levels of parathyroid hormone and calcium, leading to different symptoms such as muscle cramps and seizures. Diabetes insipidus (choice C) is a disorder of water balance characterized by excessive thirst and urination, not the symptoms presented in the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Asking if the patient feels the need to go to the bathroom helps assess urgency. 2. Urinary retention may lead to the inability to sense the urge to void. 3. This question directly addresses the issue of voiding, crucial in diagnosing urinary retention. Summary: B: Mobility is not directly related to urinary retention. C: Medication timing is important but not directly related to urinary retention. D: Safety rail inquiry is more related to fall prevention, not urinary retention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teaches proper handwashing technique. This is the most appropriate intervention because proper handwashing can help prevent the spread of infection, including urinary infections. Teaching the patient about handwashing empowers them to take control of their own hygiene, reducing the risk of infection. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Properly cleans the patient's toilet - While important for maintaining cleanliness, this does not directly address the patient's risk for a urinary infection. C: Transports urine specimen to the lab - This is not a direct care intervention for preventing urinary infections. D: Informs the oncoming nurse during hand-off - Hand-off communication is important for continuity of care but does not directly address the patient's risk for a urinary infection.