ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 5
When caring for a client diagnosed with a brain tumor of the parietal lobe, the nurse expects to assess:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tactile agnosia. When assessing a client with a parietal lobe brain tumor, the nurse would expect to assess for tactile agnosia as the parietal lobe is responsible for processing sensory information, including touch and spatial awareness. Tactile agnosia is the inability to recognize objects by touch. This impairment is commonly associated with parietal lobe lesions. Short-term memory impairment (A) is more commonly associated with temporal lobe lesions. Seizures (B) are more commonly associated with frontal lobe lesions. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (D) is associated with occipital lobe lesions. In summary, the parietal lobe tumor would likely manifest as tactile agnosia due to its role in sensory processing, making it the most relevant assessment finding in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is the function of macrophages and neutrophils?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phagocytosis. Macrophages and neutrophils are both types of phagocytes responsible for engulfing and digesting pathogens such as bacteria. This process helps in clearing infections and maintaining immune homeostasis. Summary: - Choice B (Complement fixation) is incorrect as it refers to a process where complement proteins bind to pathogens to enhance their removal by phagocytes. - Choice C (Antibody production) is incorrect as macrophages and neutrophils do not produce antibodies. They mainly rely on phagocytosis for pathogen clearance. - Choice D (Suppression of autoimmunity) is incorrect as these cells are involved in innate immunity and do not play a direct role in regulating autoimmunity.
Question 3 of 5
Which drug class is used to reduce symptoms of muscle weakness from myasthenia gravis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticholinesterase drugs. These drugs increase acetylcholine levels at neuromuscular junctions, helping improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis. Adrenergic drugs (B) and beta-blocker drugs (D) are not typically used to treat muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. Anticholinergic drugs (C) can worsen symptoms by blocking acetylcholine receptors, making them an inappropriate choice for this condition.
Question 4 of 5
A client is scheduled to receive methotrexate (Folex), 0.625 mg/kg P.O. daily, to treat malignant lymphoma. Before administering the drug, the nurse reviews the client�s medication history. Which of the following drugs might interact with methotrexate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Probenecid (Benemid). Probenecid can increase methotrexate levels, leading to potential toxicity. Methotrexate is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, and Probenecid inhibits renal tubular secretion, causing methotrexate levels to rise. Digoxin (A), theophylline (C), and famotidine (D) do not have significant interactions with methotrexate. In summary, Probenecid is the correct answer as it can increase methotrexate levels through renal tubular secretion inhibition, while the other choices do not have a significant interaction with methotrexate.
Question 5 of 5
Morphine is given in acute pulmonary edema to redistribute the pulmonary circulation to the periphery by decreasing:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because morphine helps in acute pulmonary edema by decreasing peripheral resistance, pulmonary capillary pressure, and transudation of fluid. Morphine causes vasodilation, reducing peripheral resistance, which helps redistribute blood flow to the periphery. It also reduces pulmonary capillary pressure by decreasing preload and afterload, leading to decreased fluid transudation into the alveoli. Choices A, B, and C individually do not cover all the effects of morphine in acute pulmonary edema, making them incorrect.
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