Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring a client's response to an intervention initiated by another healthcare professional is a collaborative nursing intervention. This involves working together with other healthcare team members to assess the client's progress and adjust care as needed. It promotes continuity of care and ensures that the client's needs are met effectively. A: Administering medications is typically an independent nursing intervention. B: Ordering a low-sodium diet is within the scope of a nurse's independent practice. C: Providing health education is often considered an independent nursing intervention unless it involves collaboration with other team members. In summary, choice D is the correct answer as it exemplifies collaborative care within a healthcare team.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Identifying the client is crucial for correct blood transfusion to avoid errors. Step 2: Client identification includes verifying name, date of birth, and unique identifiers. Step 3: Ensuring correct patient prevents transfusion reactions and improves patient safety. Step 4: Monitoring vital signs and flow rate are important but secondary to client identification. Step 5: Maintaining blood temperature is not a primary concern during blood transfusion.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client's medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood is crucial for urinary diversion assessment to prevent potential adverse reactions during procedures involving contrast media or seafood-based medications. It is essential to ensure the client's safety and avoid any allergic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because assessing sexual function is not directly related to urinary diversion assessment. Choice C is also incorrect as urinary diversion does not typically affect nervous control. Choice D is irrelevant to the assessment of a client undergoing urinary diversion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C: 0.25 mg is the correct daily dosage of Digoxin for adults with heart failure. This dosage is within the usual range of 0.125-0.25 mg. It helps improve heart function and manage heart failure symptoms. A: 0.005 mg is too low and ineffective. B: 0.025 mg is also too low for therapeutic effect. D: 2.5 mg is too high and may lead to toxicity in most adult patients.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: pain in the scapular region. This is because a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 and C5-C6 interspaces typically results in pain radiating from the neck to the scapular region due to nerve compression at those levels. The other choices are incorrect as constant, throbbing headaches are not typically associated with this specific diagnosis, clonus in the lower extremities is more indicative of lower spinal cord involvement, and numbness of the face is not a common symptom of herniated discs at these levels.