Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions

Questions 75

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect. The anesthesiologist should monitor the client for this adverse reaction. Muscle rigidity and spasms are common with ketamine administration and can affect the client's comfort and safety during the procedure. It is important for the nurse to promptly address any signs of muscle rigidity or spasms to prevent complications. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Hiccups - Ketamine can cause hiccups, but it is not the primary side effect to monitor for in this scenario. C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine does not typically cause extrapyramidal reactions. D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine is known for its minimal effect on respiratory depression compared to other anesthetics. Monitoring respiratory depression is still important, but not the primary concern with ketamine administration in this case.

Question 2 of 5

A patient is admitted with symptoms of a recent weight gain, 3+ pitting edema of his feet, distended neck veins, and crackles in his lungs. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for this patient�s plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Excess fluid volume. This patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of fluid overload, such as weight gain, pitting edema, distended neck veins, and crackles in the lungs. These indicate an excess of fluid in the body. Nursing care for this patient should focus on managing fluid balance. A: Deficient fluid volume is incorrect because the patient is showing signs of fluid overload, not deficit. B: Imbalanced nutrition more than body requirements is incorrect as the symptoms described are related to fluid volume, not nutrition intake. D: Noncompliance is irrelevant to the patient's current symptoms and does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload.

Question 3 of 5

A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. Thymectomy involves the surgical removal of the thymus gland, which is often abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis. The thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and can contribute to the autoimmune response seen in myasthenia gravis. By removing the thymus gland, the autoimmune response may be reduced, leading to substantial remission of symptoms. Choice A, Esophagostomy, involves creating a surgical opening into the esophagus and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis. Choice C, Myomectomy, is the surgical removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, Spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a standard treatment for myasthenia gravis.

Question 4 of 5

A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse can infer that the patient is apprehensive about discharge based on the subjective data of the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone. This indicates the patient may not feel ready to leave the hospital setting. Choice A is incorrect because the patient's fear of going home suggests they may not be comfortable performing dressing changes alone. Choice B is incorrect because there is no information provided to support that the patient can begin retaking all previous medications. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication that the fear of going home is related to the success of the surgery.

Question 5 of 5

Mrs. Go a 75-year old female suffered a fdall and is diagnosed with a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 interspace, and a second st the C5-C6 interspace.Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to discover during the assessment?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: pain in the scapular region. This is because a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 and C5-C6 interspaces typically results in pain radiating from the neck to the scapular region due to nerve compression at those levels. The other choices are incorrect as constant, throbbing headaches are not typically associated with this specific diagnosis, clonus in the lower extremities is more indicative of lower spinal cord involvement, and numbness of the face is not a common symptom of herniated discs at these levels.

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