Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Client�s wife. She is the primary source of information as she witnessed the event firsthand and provided relevant details. In this scenario, the wife's account of the event is crucial in understanding the sequence of events leading to the client's unconscious condition. Medical documents (B), test results (C), and assessment data (D) are all secondary sources of information that may provide additional data but do not have the same level of immediacy or firsthand knowledge as the client's wife. In an emergency situation, information from a reliable eyewitness is often the most valuable initial source for healthcare providers to make critical decisions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystagmus. A phenytoin blood level of 35 mcg/ml is above the therapeutic range (usually 10-20 mcg/ml). Excessive levels can lead to symptoms such as nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement commonly seen with phenytoin toxicity. Nystagmus is a known side effect of phenytoin overdose. Choices B and C are incorrect because a level of 35 mcg/ml is not within the normal therapeutic range, so symptoms would be expected. Choice D, Slurred speech, is not typically associated with phenytoin toxicity.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in Addisonian crisis, the client experiences adrenal insufficiency leading to decreased cortisol levels and impaired stress response. Offering extra blankets and raising room temperature helps prevent hypothermia, as clients in crisis are unable to regulate body temperature. Encouraging independence with ADLs (choice A) and ambulation (choice B) are not priorities as the client is in a critical state. Placing the client in a private room (choice D) is not directly related to managing Addisonian crisis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C: 0.25 mg is the correct daily dosage of Digoxin for adults with heart failure. This dosage is within the usual range of 0.125-0.25 mg. It helps improve heart function and manage heart failure symptoms. A: 0.005 mg is too low and ineffective. B: 0.025 mg is also too low for therapeutic effect. D: 2.5 mg is too high and may lead to toxicity in most adult patients.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise the collaborative problem part of the diagnostic statement because "Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient�s inability to ambulate" is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. Collaborative problems involve issues that require both nursing and medical interventions, whereas nursing diagnoses focus on the nurse's role in addressing the patient's health issues. Therefore, the nurse should revise the collaborative problem part to accurately reflect the collaborative aspect of the patient's care. Etiology (A), nursing diagnosis (B), and defining characteristic (D) are not the parts of the diagnostic statement that need revision in this scenario.