ATI RN
microbiology chapter 1 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is a characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thick peptidoglycan layer. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which retains the crystal violet stain in the Gram staining process, leading to a purple color. This thick layer is a defining characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria. Rationale: A: Thin peptidoglycan layer is incorrect because Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer. B: Presence of an outer membrane is incorrect because Gram-positive bacteria lack an outer membrane. D: Presence of lipopolysaccharides is incorrect because lipopolysaccharides are typically found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, not Gram-positive bacteria.
Question 2 of 5
Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is used for diagnosing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: aspergillosis and candidiasis. Detection of galactomannan and free mannan is commonly used in diagnosing these fungal infections. Galactomannan is a component of the cell wall of Aspergillus species, while free mannan is associated with Candida species. This detection method helps in identifying these specific fungal infections accurately. B: Syphilis is caused by a bacterium, Treponema pallidum, and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection. C: Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection caused by the Leptospira species and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection. D: HIV infection is a viral infection caused by the human immunodeficiency virus and is not diagnosed using galactomannan or free mannan detection.
Question 3 of 5
From urine of a 14-year-old boy with the exacerbation of secondary obstructive pyelonephritis Pseudomonas aeruginosa was isolated with a titer of 1000000 microbes per 1 ml. Which antibiotic is most advisable to be administered in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ciprofloxacin. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to Ampicillin, Cefazolinum, and Azithromycin. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic known for its efficacy against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Its broad spectrum and ability to penetrate tissues make it the most advisable choice for treating secondary obstructive pyelonephritis caused by this pathogen.
Question 4 of 5
All of the following are components of the gastrointestinal tract except the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: spleen. The spleen is not a component of the gastrointestinal tract; it is part of the lymphatic system. The pharynx, esophagus, and stomach are all part of the gastrointestinal tract responsible for digestion and absorption of food. The spleen's main functions include filtering blood, storing blood cells, and supporting the immune system, making it unrelated to the digestive process.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following statements is true regarding polio vaccines:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Salk and Sabin vaccines are vaccines against polio. Both Salk and Sabin vaccines are indeed vaccines specifically developed to prevent polio. The Salk vaccine is an inactivated polio vaccine, while the Sabin vaccine is an oral live attenuated vaccine. Therefore, choice B is incorrect as the Sabin vaccine is live attenuated, not inactivated. Choice C is also incorrect because the Salk vaccine is inactivated, not live attenuated. Choice D is incorrect because not all statements are true; only statement A is accurate.
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