microbiology chapter 1 test bank

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology chapter 1 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following statements is true regarding polio vaccines:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Salk and Sabin vaccines are vaccines against polio. Both Salk and Sabin vaccines are indeed vaccines specifically developed to prevent polio. The Salk vaccine is an inactivated polio vaccine, while the Sabin vaccine is an oral live attenuated vaccine. Therefore, choice B is incorrect as the Sabin vaccine is live attenuated, not inactivated. Choice C is also incorrect because the Salk vaccine is inactivated, not live attenuated. Choice D is incorrect because not all statements are true; only statement A is accurate.

Question 2 of 5

In a maternity hospital a newborn should receive vaccination against tuberculosis. What vaccine should be chosen?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG vaccine. Step 1: BCG vaccine is specifically designed to protect against tuberculosis, making it the appropriate choice for newborns. Step 2: STI vaccine is for sexually transmitted infections, not tuberculosis. Step 3: EV vaccine is not a recognized vaccine. Step 4: DPT vaccine protects against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus, not tuberculosis. In summary, BCG vaccine is the correct choice as it targets tuberculosis specifically, while the other options are designed for different purposes.

Question 3 of 5

A stool sample from a patient with severe diarrhea revealed non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rods on Endo agar. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shigella dysenteriae. It is the likely causative agent because it is a non-lactose-fermenting, Gram-negative rod commonly associated with severe diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae specifically causes bacillary dysentery. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting bacterium commonly found in the gut and not typically associated with severe diarrhea. C: Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, not severe diarrhea. D: Proteus mirabilis is a urease-positive bacterium associated with urinary tract infections, not severe diarrhea.

Question 4 of 5

Which bacteria is associated with the formation of dental caries (cavities)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Streptococcus mutans. This bacterium is associated with the formation of dental caries due to its ability to metabolize sugars and produce acids that demineralize tooth enamel. Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice A) is not typically associated with dental caries. Bacillus anthracis (choice C) causes anthrax, not dental caries. Clostridium botulinum (choice D) causes botulism, not dental caries. Streptococcus mutans' unique characteristics make it the correct choice for the bacteria associated with dental caries.

Question 5 of 5

When drug receptors are maximally activated it is referred to as the:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: peak effect. When drug receptors are maximally activated, it means the drug has reached its highest effectiveness, resulting in the peak effect. This occurs when the drug concentration is at its highest level in the body, leading to the maximum response. Threshold level (A) refers to the minimum amount of drug needed to produce a response. Cessation effect (C) is when the drug's effect wears off. Latency time (D) is the time it takes for the drug to start producing an effect. So, the peak effect best describes the scenario where drug receptors are maximally activated.

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