jarvis health assessment test bank pdf reddit

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the older adult's statement about joining his wife in heaven and plan to shoot himself indicates clear intent and imminent risk. This individual has a specific plan and timeframe, making them highest risk. Choice A is incorrect because joking about death does not necessarily indicate an imminent risk of suicide. Choice B is incorrect as past suicide attempts are a risk factor, but immediate intent is more concerning. Choice C is incorrect as the adolescent's statement is concerning, but there is no specific plan or timeframe mentioned, lowering the immediate risk compared to choice D.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, stab wound to the chest. This injury is the highest priority because it poses the greatest risk to the client's life due to potential damage to vital organs and major blood vessels. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent severe bleeding, pneumothorax, or cardiac tamponade. Treating this injury promptly can significantly increase the client's chances of survival. The other choices are incorrect because: A: An open leg fracture, while serious, does not typically pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to a stab wound to the chest. B: An open head injury can be severe, but not all head injuries are immediately life-threatening. D: Traumatic amputation of a thumb, while traumatic and painful, is not a priority compared to injuries that directly threaten a client's life.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. The first priority in caring for a client experiencing a stroke is to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the brain, as lack of oxygen can lead to further brain damage. Administering oxygen helps improve oxygenation and can prevent complications. Administering morphine (B) is not recommended as it can mask symptoms and delay diagnosis. Administering IV fluids (C) may be necessary but is not the first priority. Administering fibrinolytics (D) is a time-sensitive intervention for ischemic stroke but should be done after proper evaluation and confirmation of the type of stroke.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Encourage deep breathing exercises. For a client with a history of asthma and wheezing, deep breathing exercises help improve lung function and reduce the frequency of asthma attacks. These exercises can strengthen respiratory muscles, increase lung capacity, and enhance overall breathing efficiency. Administering bronchodilators (choice A) may provide immediate relief but does not address long-term management. Administering oxygen and encouraging fluid intake (choice B) may be helpful in certain situations but does not specifically target asthma symptoms. Administering corticosteroids (choice C) is typically used for severe asthma exacerbations and should not be the first-line treatment for someone with a history of asthma and wheezing.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for transfusion reactions. When a client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills, it may indicate a transfusion reaction, such as a febrile non-hemolytic reaction. The nurse's first priority is to monitor the client closely for other signs of a reaction, such as fever, rash, or shortness of breath. Stopping the transfusion may be necessary, but monitoring for reactions is crucial to identify and manage any adverse effects promptly. Vital signs should be monitored as part of assessing for reactions. Performing a lumbar puncture is not indicated in this situation and is unrelated to managing a transfusion reaction.