Nursing Process Test Bank

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because crushing or breaking tablets can alter the medication's effectiveness or cause harm. Step 1: Consult a physician or pharmacist ensures safety and effectiveness. Step 2: This step helps in determining if the medication can be safely altered for easier swallowing. Step 3: Using liquid form (B) may not always be an option. Mixing with food (A) can affect absorption. ROM exercises (D) are unrelated to medication administration.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because in HHNS, the primary goal is to gradually correct dehydration without causing fluid overload. Administering IV fluid slowly helps prevent circulatory overload and collapse. Choice A is incorrect as rapid administration can lead to fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as 6L over 24 hours is excessive and can cause fluid overload. Choice C is incorrect as dextrose solution with normal saline is not the ideal fluid replacement for this condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Concept map care plan. This type of care plan allows the nurse to visually represent the client's entire situation, including physical, emotional, and social aspects. By using interconnected concepts and relationships, the nurse can see the whole picture and identify potential interventions. Kardex (A) is a concise patient information summary, not comprehensive. Case management (B) focuses on coordinating services but may not capture the holistic view. Critical pathways (C) outline specific steps in care but may not address the client as a whole.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. The risk of ovarian cancer increases with age and nulliparity (never having been pregnant) is a significant risk factor. The older a woman gets without having been pregnant, the higher her risk of developing ovarian cancer. The other choices do not have as high of a risk factor for ovarian cancer. Choice A, a 30-year old woman taking contraceptives, actually reduces the risk of ovarian cancer. Choice C, a 40-year old woman with three children, and choice D, a 36-year old woman who had her first child at age 22, both have lower risk factors compared to choice B.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct answer): - In type II DM, there is some insulin present but it is insufficient to meet the body's needs. - Without sufficient insulin, the body turns to breaking down protein and fatty acids for energy. - This leads to the formation of ketones, which can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). - Therefore, the primary reason a type II diabetic does not usually develop DKA is due to insufficient insulin to prevent the breakdown of protein and fatty acids for metabolic needs. Summary of other choices: - Choice A is incorrect because there is some insulin available in type II DM, though it may be insufficient. - Choice B is incorrect as type II diabetics do have fat and protein reserves. - Choice D is incorrect as insufficient serum glucose concentrations do not directly relate to the development of DKA in type II DM.