Nursing Process Test Bank

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is preparing to conduct a health history for a client who is confined to bed. How should the nurse position herself?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sitting at a 45-degree angle to the bed. This position allows the nurse to have a clear view of the client and maintain good communication. Sitting at a 45-degree angle enables the nurse to observe the client's facial expressions, body language, and interact effectively. Standing at the end of the bed (A) limits the nurse's view and communication. Standing at the side of the bed (B) may obstruct the nurse-client interaction. Sitting at least six feet away (C) creates unnecessary distance and hinders effective communication.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is instructing a client with newly diagnosed hypoparathyroidism about the regimen used to treat this disorder. The nurse should state that the physician probably will prescribe daily supplements of calcium and:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin D. In hypoparathyroidism, there is a deficiency of parathyroid hormone leading to low calcium levels. Vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium from the intestines, thus aiding in maintaining normal calcium levels. It is often prescribed along with calcium supplements to support bone health and prevent complications. Folic acid (A) is not directly related to the treatment of hypoparathyroidism. Potassium (B) is not typically prescribed for this condition and can be harmful in high levels. Iron (D) is not directly involved in calcium metabolism and is not part of the standard treatment regimen for hypoparathyroidism.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the ff. nursing diagnoses is the focus of care for a patient with hypertension?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Deficient knowledge. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because educating the patient about hypertension, its management, lifestyle modifications, and medication adherence is crucial in improving outcomes. Activity intolerance (A) and impaired physical mobility (B) are not typically primary focuses for hypertension but may be secondary concerns. Ineffective airway clearance (C) is unrelated to hypertension. Therefore, D is the most relevant option for addressing the patient's needs.

Question 4 of 5

Usually, how does the patient behave after his seizure has subsided?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sleeps for a period of time. After a seizure, the brain and body experience fatigue and exhaustion. It is common for the patient to feel drowsy and require rest to recover. This post-ictal state is characterized by sleepiness and confusion. The other choices are incorrect because typically, after a seizure, the patient is not most comfortable walking and moving about (A), does not become restless and agitated (C), and may not immediately express thirst and hunger (D). It is important to ensure the patient is in a safe environment and allow them to rest after a seizure episode.

Question 5 of 5

Pulmonary complications are the most common problem in caring for AIDS patients. This is caused:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pneumonia Carnii. Pulmonary complications in AIDS patients are commonly caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii (previously known as Pneumocystis carinii) pneumonia. This opportunistic infection targets the lungs of immunocompromised individuals, leading to severe respiratory issues. Kaposi's Sarcoma (A) is a cancer commonly seen in AIDS patients but does not directly cause pulmonary complications. Filterable Virus (C) is a vague term and not a known cause of pulmonary issues in AIDS patients. Staphylococcus bacteria (D) can cause infections in AIDS patients but is less common than Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia in causing pulmonary complications.

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