ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is a type II DM patient. The client asks the nurse what is the primary reason a type II diabetic does not usually develop diabetic ketoacidosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct answer): - In type II DM, there is some insulin present but it is insufficient to meet the body's needs. - Without sufficient insulin, the body turns to breaking down protein and fatty acids for energy. - This leads to the formation of ketones, which can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). - Therefore, the primary reason a type II diabetic does not usually develop DKA is due to insufficient insulin to prevent the breakdown of protein and fatty acids for metabolic needs. Summary of other choices: - Choice A is incorrect because there is some insulin available in type II DM, though it may be insufficient. - Choice B is incorrect as type II diabetics do have fat and protein reserves. - Choice D is incorrect as insufficient serum glucose concentrations do not directly relate to the development of DKA in type II DM.
Question 2 of 5
A client metastatic ovarian cancer is prescribed cisplatin (Platinol). Before administering the first dose, the nurse reviews the client�s medication history for drugs that may interact with cisplatin. Which drug may cause significant interactions when given concomitantly with cisplatin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: An aminoglycoside. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin or amikacin, can interact with cisplatin by increasing the risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Both cisplatin and aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage, and when used together, the risk of kidney toxicity is significantly increased. This interaction is due to the additive effects on the kidneys. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor renal function closely and adjust the dosages of these drugs accordingly to prevent severe adverse effects. Summary: A: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is not known to have significant interactions with cisplatin. B: A cephalosporin - Cephalosporins do not typically interact with cisplatin in a clinically significant manner. C: A tetracycline - Tetracyclines are not known to cause significant interactions with
Question 3 of 5
Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse expect to see in a plan of care for a client in sickle cell crisis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pain related to sickle cell crisis. In a sickle cell crisis, the client experiences severe pain due to the sickling of red blood cells, which causes blockages in blood vessels. This pain is the hallmark symptom of sickle cell crisis and is a priority nursing diagnosis. The other choices are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary issue of sickle cell crisis. Imbalanced nutrition is not typically a priority during a crisis, disturbed sleep pattern is not a common symptom, and impaired skin integrity is not a prominent concern in sickle cell crisis.
Question 4 of 5
A patient was rushed to the ER because of difficulty in urination. He was diagnosed then as a cse of benign prostate hyperthropy (BPH) and was advised by the doctor to undego transurethral resection of prostate (TURP). Based on the urgency of the surgery, the nurse classifies this condition as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: emergency. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing difficulty in urination due to benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH), a condition that can lead to serious complications like acute urinary retention. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is a surgical procedure that is used to relieve the obstruction caused by BPH. Given the urgency of the situation and the potential for acute complications, the surgery needs to be performed immediately to prevent further harm to the patient's health. Classifying this condition as an emergency ensures prompt intervention and prioritizes the patient's well-being. Summary: - B: C.urgent (not correct): While the surgery is time-sensitive, it does not require immediate intervention like in an emergency situation. - C: elective (not correct): Elective surgeries are planned in advance and are not typically performed in urgent situations like this one. - D: required (not correct): While the surgery is necessary for the patient's condition
Question 5 of 5
Which client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. The risk of ovarian cancer increases with age and nulliparity (never having been pregnant) is a significant risk factor. The older a woman gets without having been pregnant, the higher her risk of developing ovarian cancer. The other choices do not have as high of a risk factor for ovarian cancer. Choice A, a 30-year old woman taking contraceptives, actually reduces the risk of ovarian cancer. Choice C, a 40-year old woman with three children, and choice D, a 36-year old woman who had her first child at age 22, both have lower risk factors compared to choice B.
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