microbiology a systems approach test bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Escherichia coli. E. coli is the most common cause of UTIs due to its ability to colonize the urinary tract. It possesses adhesive factors that enable it to attach to the bladder and cause infection. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, and Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, none of which are typically associated with UTIs. E. coli's prevalence in the gut and its pathogenic mechanisms make it the leading cause of UTIs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anatoxin. An anatoxin is a toxin that has been rendered harmless while retaining its ability to stimulate an immune response. Gas gangrene is caused by the toxins produced by Clostridium perfringens, not the bacteria itself. Therefore, vaccination with an anatoxin can trigger the immune system to produce antibodies against the toxin, providing immunity against the disease. A: Killed whole cell vaccine - Gas gangrene is caused by toxins, not the whole bacterium. This type of vaccine may not be effective in preventing the disease. C: There is no specific prevention by vaccination - This is incorrect, as vaccination with an anatoxin can prevent gas gangrene. D: Alive attenuated vaccine - Attenuated vaccines contain live, weakened forms of the pathogen. However, for gas gangrene prevention, targeting the specific toxin with an anatoxin vaccine is more appropriate.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Salmonella enterica. This is because Salmonella are Gram-negative rods that do not ferment lactose, which fits the description in the question. Additionally, Salmonella is a common cause of severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative rod that also causes severe diarrhea but it does not share the characteristic of not fermenting lactose. Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod that does ferment lactose. Proteus vulgaris is also a Gram-negative rod but it is not commonly associated with severe abdominal pain and diarrhea, making it an unlikely causative agent in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adenovirus. Adenovirus commonly causes acute febrile pharyngitis and pharyngoconjunctival fever. Adenovirus is known to cause respiratory infections and can present with symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis. VZV (Varicella-Zoster Virus) causes chickenpox and shingles, not these specific symptoms. Measles virus causes a systemic illness with characteristic rash, not typically pharyngitis. Rubella virus causes a mild febrile illness with rash, but not pharyngitis. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation described, adenovirus is the most likely cause.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Beta lactamase. This enzyme is produced by bacteria to break down the beta-lactam ring structure of penicillins, rendering them ineffective. Beta lactam ring (A) is part of the penicillin molecule, not an enzyme. MRSA (B) stands for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, a type of bacteria resistant to certain antibiotics, not an enzyme. Aminoglycoside ring (D) refers to a different class of antibiotics and is not related to penicillin resistance in bacteria.