microbiology a systems approach test bank

Questions 81

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology a systems approach test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

The role of pili in bacteria is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: adhesion to surfaces and conjugation. Pili are hair-like structures on the surface of bacteria that help them adhere to surfaces and facilitate the transfer of genetic material during conjugation. This is essential for bacterial survival and reproduction. Choice A is incorrect because protection from desiccation is typically associated with other structures like capsules. Choice B is incorrect as motility in bacteria is usually facilitated by flagella. Choice D is incorrect as spore formation involves the formation of specialized structures, not pili.

Question 2 of 5

The food preparation process in which not all microorganisms are killed, but the number of microbes capable of spoiling the food or causing disease is reduced, is called

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: pasteurization. This process involves heating food to a specific temperature to kill harmful bacteria while preserving the flavor and quality of the food. Sanitation (A) refers to maintaining cleanliness to prevent contamination. Disinfection (C) involves killing most, but not all, microbes on surfaces. Purification (D) typically refers to the process of removing impurities, not specifically targeting microbes. In this case, pasteurization best describes the process of reducing harmful microbes in food without completely eliminating all microorganisms.

Question 3 of 5

A patient who suffered form syphilis took a course of antibiotic therapy and fully recovered. Some time later he was infected again with Treponema pallidum. What form of infection is it?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reinfection. This is because the patient fully recovered from the initial syphilis infection after antibiotic therapy, indicating the elimination of the pathogen. Subsequently getting infected again with Treponema pallidum suggests a new exposure to the same pathogen, resulting in a new infection. Recurrence (B) would imply the reactivation of the same infection, which is not the case here. Superinfection (C) refers to a new infection that occurs on top of an existing infection, which is not the scenario described. Secondary infection (D) typically refers to an infection that occurs after an initial infection weakens the immune system, which is not the case in this scenario.

Question 4 of 5

Group II category diseases as established by the NIAID include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: reemerging diseases. Group II category diseases by the NIAID are those that have reemerged or have the potential to reemerge. This classification helps prioritize research and resources. Choice A is incorrect because new foodborne pathogens fall under different categories. Choice B is incorrect as eradicated diseases are not part of the reemerging group. Choice C is incorrect because bioterrorism agents are classified separately. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the purpose of Group II category diseases.

Question 5 of 5

Acute febrile pharyngitis and pharyngoconjunctival fever are often the clinical presentation of which viral infection:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adenovirus. Adenovirus commonly causes acute febrile pharyngitis and pharyngoconjunctival fever. Adenovirus is known to cause respiratory infections and can present with symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis. VZV (Varicella-Zoster Virus) causes chickenpox and shingles, not these specific symptoms. Measles virus causes a systemic illness with characteristic rash, not typically pharyngitis. Rubella virus causes a mild febrile illness with rash, but not pharyngitis. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation described, adenovirus is the most likely cause.

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