Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Face presentation. Vaginal delivery is possible in face presentation as the baby's head is extended, allowing for descent through the birth canal. Brow presentation (A) and shoulder presentation (C) may require cesarean delivery due to the atypical presentation of the baby. Unstable lie (D) refers to the baby being in a transverse position, which also necessitates a cesarean section. Face presentation is the only option where vaginal delivery may be possible due to the extended position of the baby's head.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Ultrasound in monitoring fetal growth can detect fetal anomalies by visualizing the fetus in real-time. It can also monitor placental health by assessing blood flow and position. Additionally, ultrasound can assess amniotic fluid levels to ensure proper fetal development. Therefore, all the benefits mentioned in choices A, B, and C are valid reasons why ultrasound is essential in monitoring fetal growth.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Check the neonate�s vital signs every 2-4 hourly. This is the priority action because neonates undergoing phototherapy are at risk for dehydration and temperature instability. Monitoring vital signs regularly helps to detect any signs of dehydration, such as decreased urine output or increased heart rate, and ensures timely intervention. Explanation for other choices: A: Turning the neonate every six hours routinely is important for preventing pressure ulcers but is not the priority when compared to monitoring vital signs for potential complications. B: Encouraging the mother to discontinue breastfeeding is incorrect as breastmilk provides essential nutrients and hydration, which are important for neonates, even during phototherapy. C: Notifying the physician if the skin turns bronze-colored is important to address a potential adverse reaction to phototherapy but does not take precedence over monitoring vital signs for immediate concerns.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decompression of the colon with rectal tube. This is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with acute colonic pseudo-obstruction (ACPO), also known as Ogilvie's syndrome. In this condition, there is colonic distention without an actual mechanical obstruction, leading to symptoms like abdominal pain, distention, and high-pitched bowel sounds. Decompression with a rectal tube can help relieve the distention and prevent complications like perforation. Choice A (stimulant laxative) is incorrect because ACPO is not due to simple constipation, so laxatives would not be effective. Choice B (carcinoma of the bowel) is unlikely given the acute onset and lack of risk factors. Choice D (angiography for mesenteric ischemia) is not indicated in this case as there are no signs of acute ischemia. In summary, the correct choice is C because it directly addresses the underlying issue of colonic distention in

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consideration of prophylactic therapy. A 12-mm induration in a healthcare worker is considered positive for PPD. In the absence of active TB on chest radiograph, the next step is to consider prophylactic therapy to prevent the development of active TB. This is based on the guidelines for the management of latent TB infection. Choice A is incorrect as a positive PPD warrants further evaluation regardless of the chest radiograph result. Choice B, the Quantiferon assay, is not the next step after a positive PPD and negative chest radiograph. Choice D, beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures, is not indicated in this scenario as there is no evidence of active TB.