Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF

Questions 64

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Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions

Question 1 of 5

Mr. Jefferson is a 59-year-old male who presents to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. His medical history is significant for dyslipidemia, and he takes 40 mgof simvastatin daily. He admits to drinking 6 to 10 bottles of beer nightly and to smoking 1 packs of cigarettes a day. He denies any history of chest pain or cardiovascular disease. He was in his usual state of good health until a couple of hours ago, when he developed this acute onset of severe pain in the upper abdomen. He says that he tried to wait it out at home but it was so bad he finally came in. His vital signs are as follows temperature 99.1F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 13784 mm Hg. The abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation with some guarding but no rebound tenderness. The AGACNP anticipates that which of the following laboratory tests will be abnormal?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A complete blood count and RBC differential. In this case, Mr. Jefferson presents with severe abdominal pain, which could indicate various conditions like pancreatitis, a possible complication of his heavy drinking. A complete blood count (CBC) with RBC differential can help assess for signs of inflammation or infection, which may be elevated in conditions like pancreatitis. The RBC differential can also provide insights into potential causes of abdominal pain, such as anemia or other blood disorders. Summary: - B: Liver function enzymes may be affected in conditions like alcoholic liver disease, but in this case, the focus should be on investigating acute abdominal pain. - C: Serum amylase, lipase, and glucose are typically checked in cases of suspected pancreatitis, but a CBC with RBC differential would provide a more comprehensive initial assessment. - D: A basic metabolic panel may not directly address the underlying cause of the acute abdominal pain and is not the most appropriate test to anticipate

Question 2 of 5

In mild preeclampsia, the mother has no complaints.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In mild preeclampsia, the mother may have symptoms such as mild hypertension, proteinuria, and sometimes mild edema. This indicates that the mother does have complaints, albeit they may be mild. The other choices (A, C, D) are incorrect because in mild preeclampsia, the mother does have complaints, so option A is not true. Options C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any information.

Question 3 of 5

Which one of the following therapies is the MOST incorporated in the management of clients with gestational diabetes?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Short acting insulin. In gestational diabetes, short acting insulin is preferred as it provides immediate control over blood sugar levels after meals. This is crucial in managing the condition to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Therapeutic diet alone (choice A) may not be sufficient to control blood sugar levels, while long-acting insulin (choice B) may not provide the rapid response needed after meals. Oral hypoglycemics (choice C) are generally avoided in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus. Therefore, short acting insulin is the most appropriate therapy for managing gestational diabetes effectively.

Question 4 of 5

Complications of occipito-posterior position:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because occipito-posterior position can lead to prolonged labor due to poor fetal positioning, causing maternal back pain. This can result in fetal distress as the baby may have difficulty descending through the birth canal. Postpartum hemorrhage, uterine rupture, fetal death (choices B and C) are not typically associated with occipito-posterior position. Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate answer.

Question 5 of 5

When evaluating a patient with acute pancreatitis, which of the following physical or diagnostic findings is an ominous finding that indicates a seriously illpotentially moribund patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obturator sign. This finding indicates irritation of the peritoneum and is associated with a ruptured appendix, not acute pancreatitis. A: Severe epigastric pain with radiation to the back is a common presentation of acute pancreatitis, but not necessarily indicative of a seriously ill patient. B: Abdominal guarding and rigidity may suggest peritonitis but are not specific to acute pancreatitis. C: Grey Turner sign, bruising of the flanks, is associated with severe pancreatitis but does not necessarily indicate a seriously ill patient.

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