nclex practice questions 2023 health assessment

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: parotid gland. This gland is located in the cheek in front of the ear. It is the largest salivary gland in the human body. The parotid gland secretes saliva into the mouth through Stenson's duct. The other choices are incorrect because Stenson's gland does not exist, the sublingual gland is located under the tongue, and the submandibular gland is located under the mandible. Therefore, the parotid gland is the only gland that fits the description given in the question.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: parotid gland. The parotid gland is located in front of the ear lobe, and swelling below the angle of the jaw is a common sign of parotid gland inflammation. The tenderness and increasing size of the spot also point towards a parotid gland issue. The other choices, such as thyroid gland (A), occipital lymph node (C), and submental lymph node (D), are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the specific symptoms described by the patient. It is essential to consider the location and function of each structure to arrive at the correct diagnosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "This is a fungal infection caused by all the antibiotics you've received." The black, hairy tongue is a known side effect of prolonged antibiotic use, which disrupts the balance of normal oral flora and predisposes to fungal overgrowth, specifically of the yeast Candida. Antibiotics can eliminate the competing bacteria that normally keep Candida in check. Therefore, the patient's symptoms are most likely due to a fungal infection related to antibiotic therapy, rather than a bacterial issue or temporary overgrowth of hair. Biopsy is not necessary as the condition is commonly seen in this context and can be managed with appropriate treatment for fungal overgrowth.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A slight amount of lid lag when moving the eyes from a superior position to an inferior position. In the diagnostic positions test, when the eyes move from an extreme superior position to an inferior position, a slight amount of lid lag is expected due to the normal anatomical structure and mechanics of the eye muscles and eyelids. This lag is a normal finding and not indicative of any underlying pathology. Rationale: A: Convergence of vision in both eyes is not a normal finding in the diagnostic positions test as convergence refers to the inward movement of both eyes towards each other to maintain single binocular vision. B: Parallel movement of both eyes is not a specific finding in the diagnostic positions test. The test is designed to assess the movement of the eyes in different directions. C: Nystagmus in extreme superior gaze is not a normal finding and indicates an abnormality in eye movement coordination, not an expected finding in the diagnostic positions test.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: migraine headaches. The patient's symptoms of severe throbbing headache in the frontotemporal area, triggered by stress (studying for an exam), partially relieved by lying down, and family history of similar headaches are indicative of migraines. Migraines commonly present with these characteristics, often exacerbated by stress and have a genetic component. A: Hypertension does not typically present with throbbing headaches in a specific area or relief with lying down. B: Cluster headaches are characterized by severe, unilateral headaches around the eye area, not frontotemporal. C: Tension headaches usually present as dull, constant pressure-type headaches, not throbbing, and do not have the familial pattern described by the patient.