nclex practice questions 2023 health assessment

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the movement of extraocular muscles is primarily controlled by cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. CN III controls most of the eye movements, CN IV controls the superior oblique muscle, and CN VI controls the lateral rectus muscle. These nerves work together to coordinate eye movements in all directions. Choices A and B are incorrect because age or cataracts do not directly impact the stimulation of extraocular muscles. Choice C is incorrect as CNs I and II are not involved in controlling extraocular muscle movement.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because shining a light across the pupil from the side allows for both direct (ipsilateral) and consensual (contralateral) pupillary constriction to be observed. This technique helps to assess the integrity of the cranial nerves involved in the pupillary light reflex (CN II and III). Direct constriction occurs in the eye exposed to the light, while consensual constriction occurs in the opposite eye. This comprehensive assessment ensures that both pupils are responding appropriately to light stimulation, providing a more accurate evaluation of the reflex. Choice A is incorrect because inspecting for pupillary constriction from directly in front may not adequately assess for consensual constriction in the opposite eye. Choice B is incorrect as asking the patient to follow the penlight in eight directions does not specifically target the pupillary light reflex. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on accommodation rather than the pupillary light reflex.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever is a possible complication of untreated strep throat due to an abnormal immune response to the streptococcal infection. This can lead to inflammation in various parts of the body, particularly the heart, joints, skin, and brain. If left untreated, rheumatic fever can cause serious long-term damage to the heart valves. The other choices are incorrect because Rubella is a viral infection causing a rash, Leukoplakia is a precancerous condition of the mouth, and Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection characterized by a red rash. These conditions are not directly associated with untreated strep throat.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: migraine headaches. The patient's symptoms of severe throbbing headache in the frontotemporal area, triggered by stress (studying for an exam), partially relieved by lying down, and family history of similar headaches are indicative of migraines. Migraines commonly present with these characteristics, often exacerbated by stress and have a genetic component. A: Hypertension does not typically present with throbbing headaches in a specific area or relief with lying down. B: Cluster headaches are characterized by severe, unilateral headaches around the eye area, not frontotemporal. C: Tension headaches usually present as dull, constant pressure-type headaches, not throbbing, and do not have the familial pattern described by the patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: parotid gland. This gland is located in the cheek in front of the ear. It is the largest salivary gland in the human body. The parotid gland secretes saliva into the mouth through Stenson's duct. The other choices are incorrect because Stenson's gland does not exist, the sublingual gland is located under the tongue, and the submandibular gland is located under the mandible. Therefore, the parotid gland is the only gland that fits the description given in the question.