nclex practice questions 2023 health assessment

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. In this case, the most likely cause of the bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs is heart failure. The pitting edema along with the history of hypertension and coronary artery disease suggests fluid overload due to the heart's inability to pump effectively. The normal skin color, absence of redness or tenderness, and strong peripheral pulses indicate that the edema is not caused by venous thrombosis, local inflammation, or blockage of lymphatic drainage. In heart failure, fluid can accumulate in the lower extremities due to the heart's reduced ability to pump blood efficiently, leading to increased pressure in the veins and subsequent fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Dark skin may not show cyanosis well, making choice A less reliable. Step 2: Erythema refers to redness, which may not be easily visible in dark skin, making choice B less suitable. Step 3: Palpating for edema and increased warmth allows for a more reliable assessment of inflammation in dark skin, making choice C the correct answer. Step 4: Palpating for tenderness and ecchymosis may be useful but not specific to inflammation assessment in dark skin, making choice D less relevant.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: clumped. Acutely infected lymph nodes typically present as clumped due to inflammation and enlargement of multiple nodes in close proximity. This clustering is a result of the immune response to the infection. Choice B: unilateral is incorrect as lymphadenopathy in acute infection can be unilateral or bilateral. Choice C: firm but freely movable is incorrect as acutely infected lymph nodes are usually tender and may not be freely movable due to inflammation. Choice D: hard and nontender is incorrect as acutely infected lymph nodes are usually tender and may not be hard.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Have you noticed any dryness in your mouth?" This question is important as dryness in the mouth can be a side effect of certain medications used to manage hypertension and chronic lung disease. Dry mouth can lead to oral health issues and impact the patient's overall well-being. A: "Do you use a fluoride supplement?" is not directly relevant to the patient's medical history of hypertension and lung disease. B: "Have you had tonsillitis in the last year?" is not as crucial as dry mouth in relation to managing hypertension and lung disease. C: "At what age did you get your first tooth?" is not pertinent to the current medical conditions and management of hypertension and lung disease. In summary, the question about dryness in the mouth is the most relevant as it pertains to potential medication side effects and oral health implications for the patient with hypertension and chronic lung disease.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "This is a fungal infection caused by all the antibiotics you've received." The black, hairy tongue is a known side effect of prolonged antibiotic use, which disrupts the balance of normal oral flora and predisposes to fungal overgrowth, specifically of the yeast Candida. Antibiotics can eliminate the competing bacteria that normally keep Candida in check. Therefore, the patient's symptoms are most likely due to a fungal infection related to antibiotic therapy, rather than a bacterial issue or temporary overgrowth of hair. Biopsy is not necessary as the condition is commonly seen in this context and can be managed with appropriate treatment for fungal overgrowth.