nclex practice questions 2023 health assessment

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: migraine headaches. The patient's symptoms of severe throbbing headache in the frontotemporal area, triggered by stress (studying for an exam), partially relieved by lying down, and family history of similar headaches are indicative of migraines. Migraines commonly present with these characteristics, often exacerbated by stress and have a genetic component. A: Hypertension does not typically present with throbbing headaches in a specific area or relief with lying down. B: Cluster headaches are characterized by severe, unilateral headaches around the eye area, not frontotemporal. C: Tension headaches usually present as dull, constant pressure-type headaches, not throbbing, and do not have the familial pattern described by the patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased vascularity in the upper respiratory tract as a result of the pregnancy. During pregnancy, hormonal changes lead to increased blood flow in the body, including the nasal passages, causing them to become more sensitive and prone to bleeding. This explains why the woman is experiencing more nosebleeds. Incorrect Choices: A: coagulation problems in the patient - This is incorrect as pregnancy is associated with hypercoagulability rather than coagulation problems. C: increased susceptibility to colds and nasal irritation - While pregnancy can lower immunity, this does not directly cause nosebleeds. D: inappropriate use of nasal sprays - This is not relevant to the situation described and does not explain the increased nosebleeds due to pregnancy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teeth that appear shorter. As people age, teeth naturally wear down and may appear shorter due to years of use. This is a normal part of the aging process. B: A smoother tongue is not a typical age-related change. C: Beefy red buccal mucosa may be indicative of an underlying health issue, not solely related to aging. D: A painless lump on the tongue could be a sign of a more serious condition and should be investigated further.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the movement of extraocular muscles is primarily controlled by cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. CN III controls most of the eye movements, CN IV controls the superior oblique muscle, and CN VI controls the lateral rectus muscle. These nerves work together to coordinate eye movements in all directions. Choices A and B are incorrect because age or cataracts do not directly impact the stimulation of extraocular muscles. Choice C is incorrect as CNs I and II are not involved in controlling extraocular muscle movement.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, loss of lens elasticity. Presbyopia is the age-related loss of near vision due to the lens becoming less flexible, making it harder to focus on close objects. With aging, the lens loses its ability to change shape, affecting near vision. Other choices are incorrect because presbyopia is primarily related to changes in the lens, not the cornea (A), adaptation to darkness (C), or distance vision abilities (D).