ATI RN
Nursing Clinical Skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient is in a progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Auscultating the left arm for a bruit and palpating for a thrill post arteriovenous fistula implantation is crucial to assess the patency and functionality of the fistula. A bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, while a thrill signifies the presence of a strong pulse through the fistula. These assessments help identify any complications like stenosis or thrombosis. Drawing blood or taking blood pressures from the arm with the fistula can lead to inaccurate results or damage the fistula. Starting a new IV line in the left lower arm is unnecessary and not relevant to monitoring the arteriovenous fistula.
Question 2 of 5
The critical care nurse knows that in critically ill patients, renal dysfunction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because renal dysfunction is a common issue in critically ill patients due to factors like sepsis or hypoperfusion. This affects nearly two thirds of patients, leading to potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as renal dysfunction is common, not rare. Choice C is incorrect as mortality rates can still be high even with renal replacement therapy. Choice D is incorrect as renal dysfunction can significantly impact morbidity, mortality, and quality of life in critically ill patients.
Question 3 of 5
Acute kidney injury from postrenal etiology is caused by
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because acute kidney injury from postrenal etiology is caused by obstruction of the flow of urine, leading to back pressure and damage to the kidneys. Choices B and C relate to prerenal causes, affecting renal perfusion and volume status. Choice D refers to intrinsic renal causes, directly affecting kidney tissue function, not postrenal obstruction. Therefore, A is correct due to the nature of postrenal etiology.
Question 4 of 5
A normal urine output is considered to be
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 to 2 L/day. Normal urine output typically ranges from 1 to 2 liters per day, which is considered adequate for maintaining proper hydration and eliminating waste products. A: 80 to 125 mL/min is too low for daily output. B: 180 L/day is excessively high and unrealistic. C: 80 mL/min is also too low for daily urine output. Therefore, D is the most appropriate choice based on standard guidelines for urine excretion.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been on daily, high-dose glucocorticoid therapy for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. His prescription runs out before his next appointment with his physician. Because he is asymptomatic, he thinks it is all right to withhold the medication for 3 days. What is likely to happen to this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: He will go into adrenal crisis. Rationale: 1. Glucocorticoids suppress the body's natural production of cortisol. 2. Abruptly stopping high-dose glucocorticoid therapy can lead to adrenal insufficiency. 3. Adrenal crisis can result in symptoms like weakness, fatigue, hypotension, and potentially life-threatening consequences. 4. This patient, being on high-dose glucocorticoid therapy, is at risk for adrenal crisis if he abruptly stops the medication. Summary: B: Thyroid storm is not related to abruptly stopping glucocorticoid therapy. C: Autoimmune disease remission is unlikely to occur within 3 days of stopping medication. D: It is not appropriate to stop high-dose glucocorticoid therapy abruptly, as it can lead to adverse effects like adrenal crisis.
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