Nursing Clinical Skills questions

Questions 28

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Nursing Clinical Skills questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute kidney injury who is being treated with hemodialysis. The patient asks if he will need dialysis for the rest of his life. Which of the following would be the best response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: �Recovery is possible, but it may take several months.� This response is the best because acute kidney injury can be reversible with appropriate management, and recovery may take time. It is important to provide hope and encouragement to the patient. A: �Unfortunately, kidney injury is not reversible; it is permanent.� - This is incorrect as acute kidney injury can be reversible with timely intervention and proper treatment. B: �Kidney function usually returns within 2 weeks.� - This is incorrect because the recovery timeline varies for each individual and can take longer than 2 weeks. C: �You will know for sure if you start urinating a lot all at once.� - This is incorrect as increased urine output may not always indicate complete recovery from acute kidney injury.

Question 2 of 5

The patient�s potassium level is 0 mEq/L. Besides dialysis, which of the following actually reduces plasma potassium levels and total body potassium content safely in a patient with renal dysfunction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate. It works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the colon, leading to potassium excretion. A is the safest option without the risk of causing hypernatremia or intestinal necrosis like B. Regular insulin (C) may cause hypoglycemia and is not as effective as A in reducing potassium levels. Calcium gluconate (D) does not directly reduce potassium levels and is used for treating hyperkalemia-related cardiac toxicity.

Question 3 of 5

The patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. The nurse realizes these are symptoms of

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. This syndrome occurs when there is a rapid shift in electrolytes, especially in the brain, due to the removal of waste products during hemodialysis. The symptoms of headache, nausea, and confusion align with this syndrome as the brain struggles to adjust to the changes. Dialyzer membrane incompatibility (A) is unlikely as it typically presents with allergic reactions, not neurological symptoms. A shift in potassium levels (B) may cause symptoms like muscle weakness or irregular heartbeat, not headache and confusion. Hypothermia (D) would present with low body temperature, shivering, and confusion, but in this case, the symptoms are more indicative of dialysis disequilibrium syndrome.

Question 4 of 5

Continuous venovenous hemofiltration is used to

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because continuous venovenous hemofiltration primarily removes fluids and solutes through convection. Convection involves the movement of solutes across a semi-permeable membrane by the force of the fluid flow. This process helps to achieve fluid balance and manage electrolyte levels in patients with renal failure. Choice B is incorrect because hemofiltration does not specifically target plasma water; it aims to remove both fluids and solutes. Choice C is incorrect as hemofiltration does not involve adding dialysate; it relies on the patient's blood passing through a filter to remove waste products. Choice D is incorrect because while hemofiltration may involve aspects of ultrafiltration and dialysis, the primary mechanism is convection for removing fluids and solutes.

Question 5 of 5

A patient has been on daily, high-dose glucocorticoid therapy for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. His prescription runs out before his next appointment with his physician. Because he is asymptomatic, he thinks it is all right to withhold the medication for 3 days. What is likely to happen to this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: He will go into adrenal crisis. Rationale: 1. Glucocorticoids suppress the body's natural production of cortisol. 2. Abruptly stopping high-dose glucocorticoid therapy can lead to adrenal insufficiency. 3. Adrenal crisis can result in symptoms like weakness, fatigue, hypotension, and potentially life-threatening consequences. 4. This patient, being on high-dose glucocorticoid therapy, is at risk for adrenal crisis if he abruptly stops the medication. Summary: B: Thyroid storm is not related to abruptly stopping glucocorticoid therapy. C: Autoimmune disease remission is unlikely to occur within 3 days of stopping medication. D: It is not appropriate to stop high-dose glucocorticoid therapy abruptly, as it can lead to adverse effects like adrenal crisis.

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