Nursing Clinical Skills questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because acute kidney injury from postrenal etiology is caused by obstruction of the flow of urine, leading to back pressure and damage to the kidneys. Choices B and C relate to prerenal causes, affecting renal perfusion and volume status. Choice D refers to intrinsic renal causes, directly affecting kidney tissue function, not postrenal obstruction. Therefore, A is correct due to the nature of postrenal etiology.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because acute kidney injury from postrenal etiology is caused by obstruction of the flow of urine, leading to back pressure and damage to the kidneys. Choices B and C relate to prerenal causes, affecting renal perfusion and volume status. Choice D refers to intrinsic renal causes, directly affecting kidney tissue function, not postrenal obstruction. Therefore, A is correct due to the nature of postrenal etiology.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: a percutaneous catheter at the bedside. In this urgent situation, a percutaneous catheter can be quickly inserted at the bedside to provide immediate vascular access for hemodialysis. This option allows for rapid initiation of treatment without the need for surgical placement or waiting for a more permanent access like an arteriovenous fistula or graft. Incorrect Choices: B: A percutaneous tunneled catheter may require more time for insertion due to tunneling and may not be suitable for immediate use. C: An arteriovenous fistula is a more permanent access created surgically and requires time to mature before being used for hemodialysis. D: An arteriovenous graft is also a surgical option that requires time to heal and mature before being used for hemodialysis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome, patients have high blood glucose levels, leading to dehydration and increased serum osmolality. Unlike diabetic ketoacidosis, there is no significant ketosis in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and no ketosis. A: Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and greater ketosis - This is incorrect because hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by high blood glucose levels and no significant ketosis. B: Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and milder ketosis - This is incorrect because hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome presents with higher glucose levels and no ketosis. C: Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and greater ketosis - This is incorrect because hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome does not typically involve significant ketosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ADH deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is caused by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to excessive urine production and thirst. ADH is responsible for regulating water reabsorption in the kidneys. When ADH levels are low or absent, the kidneys cannot concentrate urine effectively, resulting in excessive urine output. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: ADH excess would not lead to diabetes insipidus, as it would result in increased water reabsorption and concentrated urine. C: ADH insensitivity refers to a condition where the body does not respond to ADH, but it does not cause diabetes insipidus. D: ADH replacement therapy is actually a treatment for diabetes insipidus, not a mechanism for its development.