Nursing Clinical Skills questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because acute kidney injury from postrenal etiology is caused by obstruction of the flow of urine, leading to back pressure and damage to the kidneys. Choices B and C relate to prerenal causes, affecting renal perfusion and volume status. Choice D refers to intrinsic renal causes, directly affecting kidney tissue function, not postrenal obstruction. Therefore, A is correct due to the nature of postrenal etiology.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Auscultating the left arm for a bruit and palpating for a thrill post arteriovenous fistula implantation is crucial to assess the patency and functionality of the fistula. A bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, while a thrill signifies the presence of a strong pulse through the fistula. These assessments help identify any complications like stenosis or thrombosis. Drawing blood or taking blood pressures from the arm with the fistula can lead to inaccurate results or damage the fistula. Starting a new IV line in the left lower arm is unnecessary and not relevant to monitoring the arteriovenous fistula.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate. It works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the colon, leading to potassium excretion. A is the safest option without the risk of causing hypernatremia or intestinal necrosis like B. Regular insulin (C) may cause hypoglycemia and is not as effective as A in reducing potassium levels. Calcium gluconate (D) does not directly reduce potassium levels and is used for treating hyperkalemia-related cardiac toxicity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because peritoneal dialysis uses the patient's own semipermeable membrane, the peritoneal membrane, to filter waste and excess fluid from the blood. This membrane allows for the exchange of fluids and solutes, making it an effective method for dialysis. A is incorrect because peritoneal dialysis can be used for acute kidney injury. C is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can address drug overdose and electrolyte imbalance by removing toxins and balancing electrolytes. D is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can be used in cases of water intoxication by helping to remove excess fluid from the body.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: He will go into adrenal crisis. Rationale: 1. Glucocorticoids suppress the body's natural production of cortisol. 2. Abruptly stopping high-dose glucocorticoid therapy can lead to adrenal insufficiency. 3. Adrenal crisis can result in symptoms like weakness, fatigue, hypotension, and potentially life-threatening consequences. 4. This patient, being on high-dose glucocorticoid therapy, is at risk for adrenal crisis if he abruptly stops the medication. Summary: B: Thyroid storm is not related to abruptly stopping glucocorticoid therapy. C: Autoimmune disease remission is unlikely to occur within 3 days of stopping medication. D: It is not appropriate to stop high-dose glucocorticoid therapy abruptly, as it can lead to adverse effects like adrenal crisis.