Nursing Clinical Skills questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: He will go into adrenal crisis. Rationale: 1. Glucocorticoids suppress the body's natural production of cortisol. 2. Abruptly stopping high-dose glucocorticoid therapy can lead to adrenal insufficiency. 3. Adrenal crisis can result in symptoms like weakness, fatigue, hypotension, and potentially life-threatening consequences. 4. This patient, being on high-dose glucocorticoid therapy, is at risk for adrenal crisis if he abruptly stops the medication. Summary: B: Thyroid storm is not related to abruptly stopping glucocorticoid therapy. C: Autoimmune disease remission is unlikely to occur within 3 days of stopping medication. D: It is not appropriate to stop high-dose glucocorticoid therapy abruptly, as it can lead to adverse effects like adrenal crisis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: azotemia. Azotemia refers to elevated levels of nitrogenous waste products like BUN and creatinine in the blood. This occurs when the kidneys are not functioning properly, leading to decreased filtration and excretion of waste products. Oliguria (A) is reduced urine output, not specific to elevated BUN and creatinine levels. Acute kidney injury (C) is a broader term for sudden loss of kidney function. Prerenal disease (D) typically refers to conditions affecting blood flow to the kidneys, leading to decreased kidney function, but it does not specifically describe the increase in BUN and creatinine levels.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome, patients have high blood glucose levels, leading to dehydration and increased serum osmolality. Unlike diabetic ketoacidosis, there is no significant ketosis in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and no ketosis. A: Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and greater ketosis - This is incorrect because hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by high blood glucose levels and no significant ketosis. B: Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and milder ketosis - This is incorrect because hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome presents with higher glucose levels and no ketosis. C: Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and greater ketosis - This is incorrect because hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome does not typically involve significant ketosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 to 2 L/day. Normal urine output typically ranges from 1 to 2 liters per day, which is considered adequate for maintaining proper hydration and eliminating waste products. A: 80 to 125 mL/min is too low for daily output. B: 180 L/day is excessively high and unrealistic. C: 80 mL/min is also too low for daily urine output. Therefore, D is the most appropriate choice based on standard guidelines for urine excretion.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ADH deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is caused by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to excessive urine production and thirst. ADH is responsible for regulating water reabsorption in the kidneys. When ADH levels are low or absent, the kidneys cannot concentrate urine effectively, resulting in excessive urine output. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: ADH excess would not lead to diabetes insipidus, as it would result in increased water reabsorption and concentrated urine. C: ADH insensitivity refers to a condition where the body does not respond to ADH, but it does not cause diabetes insipidus. D: ADH replacement therapy is actually a treatment for diabetes insipidus, not a mechanism for its development.