clinical skills exam questions

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Question 1 of 5

The patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury and has been getting dialysis 3 days per week. The patient complains of general malaise and is tachypneic. An arterial blood gas shows that the patient�s pH is 19, with a PCO of 30 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 13 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation. The patient's arterial blood gas results indicate metabolic acidosis (low pH, low bicarbonate) with respiratory compensation (low PCO). In this scenario, the patient is likely experiencing respiratory fatigue due to tachypnea from metabolic acidosis. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are needed to support the patient's respiratory effort and correct the acid-base imbalance. Administering morphine (choice A) can further depress the respiratory drive. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) can temporarily correct the pH but does not address the underlying respiratory distress. Canceling dialysis (choice D) is not indicated as it does not address the acute respiratory compromise.

Question 2 of 5

In determining the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine is obtained. If a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible,

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because if a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible, a standardized formula can be used to estimate the GFR. This is typically done using the patient's serum creatinine level, age, sex, and race. It is a validated method when direct measurement is not feasible. A: Incorrect. It is still possible to estimate GFR using formulas when 24-hour urine collection is not possible. B: Incorrect. BUN alone is not sufficient to accurately determine renal function. C: Incorrect. BUN/Creatinine ratio is not a direct measure of GFR and may be influenced by other factors.

Question 3 of 5

The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's lungs. In rhabdomyolysis, muscle breakdown releases myoglobin which can cause kidney damage. Mannitol is given to prevent kidney damage by promoting diuresis. However, mannitol can also cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema. Therefore, assessing the patient's lungs is crucial to monitor for signs of fluid overload and prevent complications. A: Assessing the patient's hearing is not directly related to the management of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration. C: Decreasing IV fluids after administering a diuretic like mannitol can lead to inadequate fluid resuscitation and worsening kidney injury. D: Giving extra doses before radiological contrast agents is not necessary in the context of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.

Question 4 of 5

A patient with type 1 diabetes who is receiving a continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion via an insulin pump contacts the clinic to report mechanical failure of the infusion pump. The nurse instructs the patient to begin monitoring for signs of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: diabetic ketoacidosis. When an insulin pump fails, the patient may experience a sudden decrease in insulin delivery, leading to a potential rise in blood glucose levels. This can trigger diabetic ketoacidosis, characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis. Monitoring for signs such as increased thirst, frequent urination, fruity breath odor, and rapid breathing is crucial. Incorrect choices: A: Adrenal insufficiency is not directly related to insulin pump failure. C: Hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state is more common in type 2 diabetes and typically occurs with extreme hyperglycemia, not sudden pump failure. D: Hypoglycemia is less likely with pump failure due to decreased insulin delivery.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of head trauma. The nurse notes that the patient�s urine output has increased tremendously over the past 18 hours. The nurse suspects that the patient may be developing

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A patient with head trauma may develop diabetes insipidus due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This results in excessive urine output and thirst. Other options are incorrect because: B: Diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with high blood sugar and ketones, not increased urine output. C: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by extreme hyperglycemia, not increased urine output. D: Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone results in decreased urine output due to excess ADH.

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