clinical skills exam questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: fluid replacement with 0.45% saline. The patient's symptoms suggest dehydration and hypovolemia, indicated by low blood pressure, elevated heart rate, and lack of urine output. Fluid replacement with isotonic saline would help restore intravascular volume and improve blood pressure. Blood transfusion (A) is not indicated without evidence of significant blood loss. Inotropic agents (C) are used to improve cardiac function, which is not the primary issue in this case. Antiemetics (D) may help with nausea and vomiting but do not address the underlying cause of hypovolemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: fluid replacement with 0.45% saline. The patient's symptoms suggest dehydration and hypovolemia, indicated by low blood pressure, elevated heart rate, and lack of urine output. Fluid replacement with isotonic saline would help restore intravascular volume and improve blood pressure. Blood transfusion (A) is not indicated without evidence of significant blood loss. Inotropic agents (C) are used to improve cardiac function, which is not the primary issue in this case. Antiemetics (D) may help with nausea and vomiting but do not address the underlying cause of hypovolemia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient with acute pancreatitis receiving TPN is at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content in TPN. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: The 18-year-old male post-surgery for a fractured femur does not have a direct correlation to blood glucose control assessment. B: The 29-year-old female undergoing evaluation for pheochromocytoma is not directly related to blood glucose control assessment. D: The 62-year-old morbidly obese female post-hysterectomy for ovarian cancer does not specifically require immediate blood glucose control assessment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade. Renin is released by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure or low sodium levels. It acts on angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction, leading to increased blood pressure, and stimulates aldosterone release, promoting sodium and water retention. Choice B is incorrect because renin does not suppress angiotensin production; it actually initiates the process. Choice C is incorrect because renin's action leads to increased sodium reabsorption by stimulating aldosterone release. Choice D is incorrect because renin does not inhibit aldosterone release; it promotes it as part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. CRRT removes solutes and water slowly to avoid hemodynamic instability. 2. Slow removal better tolerates fluid and electrolyte shifts in critically ill patients. 3. Unlike intermittent hemodialysis, CRRT provides continuous, gentle therapy. 4. Choice A is incorrect as both CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis use a hemofilter. 5. Choice B is incorrect as CRRT does not provide faster solute and water removal. 6. Choice C is incorrect as CRRT allows for diffusion to occur, albeit at a slower rate. Summary: Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) removes solutes and water slowly to prevent hemodynamic instability, making it a gentler and more continuous process compared to intermittent hemodialysis. The other choices are incorrect as CRRT does use a hemofilter, does not provide faster removal, and still allows for diffusion to occur.