clinical skills exam questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal. The presence of sediment, crystals, and bacteria in the urinalysis indicates an issue within the kidneys themselves. The flank pain suggests renal involvement. Prerenal would involve issues before the kidneys, such as inadequate blood flow. Postrenal would involve issues after the kidneys, such as urinary tract obstruction. Not renal related is incorrect as the symptoms and urinalysis findings clearly point to a renal issue.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Volume replacement and insulin infusion often correct the acidosis in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) because volume depletion and insulin deficiency are key factors in its pathophysiology. Volume replacement helps correct dehydration and improve tissue perfusion, while insulin infusion helps lower blood glucose levels and inhibit ketone production, ultimately correcting the acidosis. A is incorrect because serum lactate levels are not typically used to guide insulin administration in DKA. B is incorrect as sodium bicarbonate is not a first-line medication for DKA treatment as it can worsen metabolic acidosis. C is incorrect as the degree of acidosis in DKA is typically assessed through blood gas analysis, not continuous pulse oximetry.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose: 524 mg/dL. The patient likely has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) due to missed insulin doses, stress, and illness leading to high blood glucose levels. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis. A low blood glucose level (Choice A) is not consistent with DKA. HCO3- of 10 mEq/L (Choice C) indicates metabolic acidosis, but it's not specific to DKA. A PaCO2 of 37 mm Hg (Choice D) is within the normal range and not directly related to DKA.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade. Renin is released by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure or low sodium levels. It acts on angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction, leading to increased blood pressure, and stimulates aldosterone release, promoting sodium and water retention. Choice B is incorrect because renin does not suppress angiotensin production; it actually initiates the process. Choice C is incorrect because renin's action leads to increased sodium reabsorption by stimulating aldosterone release. Choice D is incorrect because renin does not inhibit aldosterone release; it promotes it as part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A patient with head trauma may develop diabetes insipidus due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This results in excessive urine output and thirst. Other options are incorrect because: B: Diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with high blood sugar and ketones, not increased urine output. C: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by extreme hyperglycemia, not increased urine output. D: Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone results in decreased urine output due to excess ADH.