clinical skills exam questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: deficiency of corticosteroids. Acute adrenal crisis is caused by a sudden and severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone, which are essential corticosteroids produced by the adrenal glands. Without these hormones, the body cannot regulate blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and respond to stress adequately. Acute renal failure (choice A) does not directly lead to adrenal crisis. High doses of corticosteroids (choice C) can suppress the adrenal glands but do not cause acute adrenal crisis. Overdose of testosterone (choice D) does not impact the production of cortisol and aldosterone, thus not causing acute adrenal crisis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: a decreased risk of peritonitis exists. Peritoneal dialysis involves using the peritoneum as a membrane for fluid exchange, reducing the risk of infections like peritonitis compared to hemodialysis. Option A is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can be done at home and is less time-consuming than hemodialysis. Option C is incorrect as biochemical disturbances are corrected more gradually with peritoneal dialysis. Option D is incorrect as there is a risk of bleeding complications with peritoneal dialysis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: evaluate the patient for signs and symptoms of infection. After 5 days, infection risk increases. Signs of infection include fever, redness, swelling, and tenderness at the catheter site. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent complications. A: Routine dialysis catheter change is not indicated after 5 days. C: Teaching long-term use is incorrect as temporary catheters are not meant for extended use. D: Using lumens for fluid administration can increase infection risk and is not recommended.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade. Renin is released by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure or low sodium levels. It acts on angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction, leading to increased blood pressure, and stimulates aldosterone release, promoting sodium and water retention. Choice B is incorrect because renin does not suppress angiotensin production; it actually initiates the process. Choice C is incorrect because renin's action leads to increased sodium reabsorption by stimulating aldosterone release. Choice D is incorrect because renin does not inhibit aldosterone release; it promotes it as part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose: 524 mg/dL. The patient likely has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) due to missed insulin doses, stress, and illness leading to high blood glucose levels. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis. A low blood glucose level (Choice A) is not consistent with DKA. HCO3- of 10 mEq/L (Choice C) indicates metabolic acidosis, but it's not specific to DKA. A PaCO2 of 37 mm Hg (Choice D) is within the normal range and not directly related to DKA.