ATI RN
nclex practice questions 2023 health assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse suspects that a patient has otitis media. Which of the following findings of the tympanic membrane are early signs of otitis media?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red and bulging. In otitis media, the tympanic membrane becomes red and bulging due to inflammation and fluid accumulation. This is an early sign as it indicates increased pressure within the middle ear. Choice B (Hypomobility) is incorrect because it refers to decreased movement of the tympanic membrane, which is not specific to otitis media. Choice C (Retraction with landmarks clearly visible) is incorrect as it suggests the tympanic membrane is pulled inward, which is more indicative of otitis media with effusion rather than acute otitis media. Choice D (Flat, slightly pulled in at the center, and moves with insufflation) is incorrect as it describes a normal or retracted tympanic membrane rather than the characteristic red and bulging appearance seen in otitis media.
Question 2 of 5
A hospitalized patient who has received numerous antibiotics is being assessed by the nurse, who notes that his tongue appears black and hairy. Which of the following would the nurse say to the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "This is a fungal infection caused by all the antibiotics you've received." The black, hairy tongue is a known side effect of prolonged antibiotic use, which disrupts the balance of normal oral flora and predisposes to fungal overgrowth, specifically of the yeast Candida. Antibiotics can eliminate the competing bacteria that normally keep Candida in check. Therefore, the patient's symptoms are most likely due to a fungal infection related to antibiotic therapy, rather than a bacterial issue or temporary overgrowth of hair. Biopsy is not necessary as the condition is commonly seen in this context and can be managed with appropriate treatment for fungal overgrowth.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse suspects that a patient has otitis media. Which of the following findings of the tympanic membrane are early signs of otitis media?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red and bulging. In otitis media, the tympanic membrane becomes red and bulging due to inflammation and fluid accumulation. This is an early sign as it indicates increased pressure within the middle ear. Choice B (Hypomobility) is incorrect because it refers to decreased movement of the tympanic membrane, which is not specific to otitis media. Choice C (Retraction with landmarks clearly visible) is incorrect as it suggests the tympanic membrane is pulled inward, which is more indicative of otitis media with effusion rather than acute otitis media. Choice D (Flat, slightly pulled in at the center, and moves with insufflation) is incorrect as it describes a normal or retracted tympanic membrane rather than the characteristic red and bulging appearance seen in otitis media.
Question 4 of 5
During an admission assessment, the nurse notices that a male patient has an enlarged and rather thick skull. The nurse suspects acromegaly and would further assess for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse notices an enlarged and thick skull, which are common signs of acromegaly. Step 2: Acromegaly results from excess growth hormone, leading to changes in facial features. Step 3: Coarse facial features such as enlarged nose, lips, and jaw are classic signs of acromegaly. Step 4: Therefore, assessing for coarse facial features is crucial in confirming acromegaly. Summary: A: Exophthalmos is associated with hyperthyroidism, not acromegaly. B: Bowed long bones are seen in conditions like rickets, not acromegaly. D: An acorn-shaped cranium is not a typical feature of acromegaly.
Question 5 of 5
When performing an assessment of a 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease, the nurse notices bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs. The skin is puffy and tight but of normal colour. There is no increased redness or tenderness, and the peripheral pulses are equal and strong. In this situation, which of the following is the most likely cause of the edema?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. In this case, the most likely cause of the bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs is heart failure. The pitting edema along with the history of hypertension and coronary artery disease suggests fluid overload due to the heart's inability to pump effectively. The normal skin color, absence of redness or tenderness, and strong peripheral pulses indicate that the edema is not caused by venous thrombosis, local inflammation, or blockage of lymphatic drainage. In heart failure, fluid can accumulate in the lower extremities due to the heart's reduced ability to pump blood efficiently, leading to increased pressure in the veins and subsequent fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues.
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