foundation of nursing questions

Questions 101

ATI RN

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foundation of nursing questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rate of growth. Malignant cancer cells grow and divide rapidly compared to benign cells. Benign cells are usually slow-growing and have a well-defined border, while malignant cells grow uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissues. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Ability to cause death - Both benign and malignant cells have the potential to cause harm, but the key difference lies in their growth rate and invasiveness. C: Size of cells - The size of cells does not necessarily differentiate between benign and malignant cells. D: Cell contents - While malignant cells may have abnormal cell contents, this is not a defining characteristic when differentiating between benign and malignant cells. E: Ability to spread - While the ability to spread is a key characteristic of malignant cells, the primary differentiating factor in this question is the rate of growth.

Question 2 of 5

While taking a health history on a 20-year-old female patient, the nurse ascertains that this patient is taking miconazole (Monistat). The nurse is justified in presuming that this patient has what medical condition?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): The nurse can presume the patient has candidiasis since miconazole is commonly used to treat fungal infections like vaginal yeast infections caused by Candida. This medication works by stopping the growth of the fungus. Therefore, the patient's use of miconazole indicates a probable diagnosis of candidiasis. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A (Bacterial vaginosis): Miconazole is not used to treat bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, which is caused by an imbalance of bacteria in the vagina. B (HPV): Miconazole is not used to treat viral infections like HPV, which is a sexually transmitted infection caused by certain types of human papillomavirus. D (TSS): Miconazole is not used to treat toxic shock syndrome, which is a severe complication of certain bacterial infections and is not typically associated with miconazole use.

Question 3 of 5

A 42-year-old man has come to the clinic for an annual physical. The nurse notes in the patients history that his father was treated for breast cancer. What should the nurse provide to the patient before he leaves the clinic?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A referral for a mammogram. Given the family history of breast cancer in the patient's father, the nurse should recommend a mammogram as a preventive measure due to increased risk. Mammograms are effective in detecting breast cancer early, especially in individuals with a family history. This can help in early diagnosis and timely intervention if needed. B: Instructions about breast self-examination (BSE) can be helpful, but in this case, a mammogram is a more definitive screening tool for high-risk individuals. C: A referral to a surgeon is not necessary at this point as the patient does not exhibit any symptoms of breast cancer. D: Referral to a support group may be beneficial for emotional support, but the priority should be on proactive screening measures like a mammogram.

Question 4 of 5

A 37-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his wife because he is experiencing loss of motor function and sensation. The physician suspects the patient has a spinal cord tumor and hospitalizes him for diagnostic testing. In light of the need to diagnose spinal cord compression from a tumor, the nurse will most likely prepare the patient for what test?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: MRI. MRI is the most appropriate test for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor as it provides detailed images of soft tissues, including the spinal cord and surrounding structures. It can accurately identify the location, size, and extent of the tumor. Anterior-posterior x-ray (A) is not as detailed and may not clearly show soft tissue abnormalities. Ultrasound (B) is not typically used for imaging the spinal cord and may not provide sufficient information. Lumbar puncture (C) is used to collect cerebrospinal fluid and is not helpful for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is aware of the need to assess patients risks for anaphylaxis. What health care procedure constitutes the highest risk for anaphylaxis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Computed tomography with contrast solution. This procedure involves the use of contrast agents that can trigger anaphylaxis due to the patient's allergic reaction to the contrast solution. Contrast solutions contain substances like iodine, which can cause severe allergic reactions in some individuals. Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly and requires immediate intervention. Assessing the risk for anaphylaxis during this procedure is crucial to prevent any potential harm to the patient. Incorrect choices: A: Administration of the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine - While allergic reactions can occur with vaccines, the risk of anaphylaxis with MMR vaccine is lower compared to the contrast solution used in CT scans. B: Rapid administration of intravenous fluids - Rapid IV fluid administration can cause fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, but it is not typically associated with triggering anaphylaxis. D: Administration of nebulized bronchodil

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