foundation of nursing questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rate of growth. Malignant cancer cells grow and divide rapidly compared to benign cells. Benign cells are usually slow-growing and have a well-defined border, while malignant cells grow uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissues. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Ability to cause death - Both benign and malignant cells have the potential to cause harm, but the key difference lies in their growth rate and invasiveness. C: Size of cells - The size of cells does not necessarily differentiate between benign and malignant cells. D: Cell contents - While malignant cells may have abnormal cell contents, this is not a defining characteristic when differentiating between benign and malignant cells. E: Ability to spread - While the ability to spread is a key characteristic of malignant cells, the primary differentiating factor in this question is the rate of growth.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (200 cells/mm3 of blood) because a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS when their CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count drops below 200 cells/mm3. This threshold signifies a significant decrease in the immune system's ability to fight off infections and indicates progression to AIDS. Choice A (75 cells/mm3 of blood) is incorrect because this level is extremely low and would indicate severe immunosuppression, likely leading to AIDS much earlier than anticipated. Choice C (325 cells/mm3 of blood) and D (450 cells/mm3 of blood) are also incorrect as these levels are within the normal range or slightly lower, which would not meet the criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Graphic record and flow sheet. The nurse will use a graphic record and flow sheet to document the patient's daily weights. This form allows for easy tracking and visualization of weight trends over time. Database (A) is used for storing large amounts of data but not ideal for daily weight tracking. Progress notes (B) are for narrative descriptions of patient care, not specific for daily weights. Patient care summary (C) provides an overview of the patient's care plan, not detailed daily weights.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a chemical burn to the eye is to generously flush the affected eye with normal saline or water. Flushing helps to remove the chemical from the eye, preventing further damage. Antibiotic solution (choice A) is not the first intervention as the priority is to remove the chemical. Applying a patch (choice C) can trap the chemical against the eye, worsening the injury. Applying direct pressure (choice D) is not appropriate and can cause additional harm. Flushing with normal saline or water is the most effective and safest initial intervention to minimize damage from a chemical burn to the eye.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Increased urine output indicates improved kidney function, a key indicator of recovery from preeclampsia. Step 2: Adequate urine output helps regulate blood pressure and reduce swelling. Step 3: Consistent urine output >100 mL/hour signifies the kidneys are functioning properly. Step 4: Therefore, C is the correct answer as it directly reflects recovery progress from preeclampsia. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with kidney function or recovery from preeclampsia.