nclex practice questions 2023 health assessment

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Erythematous scaly patch with sharp margins in the sacral area. In patients with AIDS, this presentation is most likely indicative of a common opportunistic infection called tinea corporis. This fungal infection often presents as erythematous scaly patches with well-defined borders. The location in the sacral area is also common due to the warm and moist environment. Choice A, tinea capitis, is a fungal infection of the scalp and is not typically associated with AIDS. Choice B describes a presentation more indicative of a condition like seborrheic dermatitis rather than an AIDS-related skin manifestation. Choice D describes a presentation more typical of tinea corporis, which is not commonly seen in the axilla region in patients with AIDS.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the movement of extraocular muscles is primarily controlled by cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. CN III controls most of the eye movements, CN IV controls the superior oblique muscle, and CN VI controls the lateral rectus muscle. These nerves work together to coordinate eye movements in all directions. Choices A and B are incorrect because age or cataracts do not directly impact the stimulation of extraocular muscles. Choice C is incorrect as CNs I and II are not involved in controlling extraocular muscle movement.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Bluish lips indicate cyanosis, a sign of inadequate oxygen supply. 2. Dark line along gingival margin suggests lead poisoning. 3. The nurse should assess for other signs of inadequate oxygen supply to determine the severity and underlying cause. 4. This finding is not normal and requires further evaluation to prevent complications. Summary: A: Checking hemoglobin for anemia is not the immediate priority when cyanosis and lead poisoning are suspected. C: Assuming this is a normal finding can lead to overlooking a potentially serious condition. D: Carbon monoxide exposure could be a consideration, but assessing for overall oxygen supply is more crucial in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Erythematous scaly patch with sharp margins in the sacral area. In patients with AIDS, this presentation is most likely indicative of a common opportunistic infection called tinea corporis. This fungal infection often presents as erythematous scaly patches with well-defined borders. The location in the sacral area is also common due to the warm and moist environment. Choice A, tinea capitis, is a fungal infection of the scalp and is not typically associated with AIDS. Choice B describes a presentation more indicative of a condition like seborrheic dermatitis rather than an AIDS-related skin manifestation. Choice D describes a presentation more typical of tinea corporis, which is not commonly seen in the axilla region in patients with AIDS.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because rubella can indeed damage the organ of Corti in the fetus, which is responsible for hearing. During the first trimester, when the hearing structures are forming, any damage to the organ of Corti can result in impaired hearing for the infant. Choice A is incorrect because rubella can impact the fetus, including the organs responsible for hearing. Choice C is incorrect because rubella can be harmful to the fetus at any stage of pregnancy, not just the second trimester. Choice D is incorrect because CN VIII (the vestibulocochlear nerve) is not directly affected by rubella, rather it is the organ of Corti that is damaged.