nclex practice questions 2023 health assessment

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presence of black and white dots on the tympanic membrane and ear canal wall during an otoscopic examination suggests a yeast or fungal infection. This is because yeast or fungal infections commonly present as white or black dots in the ear canal. Malignancy would typically manifest as abnormal growths or masses, not dots. Viral infections usually do not present as specific dots on the tympanic membrane. Blood in the middle ear would appear as red or pinkish fluid behind the eardrum, not as black and white dots. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Yeast or fungal infection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Dark skin may not show cyanosis well, making choice A less reliable. Step 2: Erythema refers to redness, which may not be easily visible in dark skin, making choice B less suitable. Step 3: Palpating for edema and increased warmth allows for a more reliable assessment of inflammation in dark skin, making choice C the correct answer. Step 4: Palpating for tenderness and ecchymosis may be useful but not specific to inflammation assessment in dark skin, making choice D less relevant.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red and bulging. In otitis media, the tympanic membrane becomes red and bulging due to inflammation and fluid accumulation. This is an early sign as it indicates increased pressure within the middle ear. Choice B (Hypomobility) is incorrect because it refers to decreased movement of the tympanic membrane, which is not specific to otitis media. Choice C (Retraction with landmarks clearly visible) is incorrect as it suggests the tympanic membrane is pulled inward, which is more indicative of otitis media with effusion rather than acute otitis media. Choice D (Flat, slightly pulled in at the center, and moves with insufflation) is incorrect as it describes a normal or retracted tympanic membrane rather than the characteristic red and bulging appearance seen in otitis media.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Erythematous scaly patch with sharp margins in the sacral area. In patients with AIDS, this presentation is most likely indicative of a common opportunistic infection called tinea corporis. This fungal infection often presents as erythematous scaly patches with well-defined borders. The location in the sacral area is also common due to the warm and moist environment. Choice A, tinea capitis, is a fungal infection of the scalp and is not typically associated with AIDS. Choice B describes a presentation more indicative of a condition like seborrheic dermatitis rather than an AIDS-related skin manifestation. Choice D describes a presentation more typical of tinea corporis, which is not commonly seen in the axilla region in patients with AIDS.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: sternomastoid and trapezius. CN XI, also known as the spinal accessory nerve, innervates the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles. The sternomastoid muscle is responsible for neck rotation and flexion, while the trapezius muscle is responsible for shoulder movement and stability. The other choices are incorrect because the omohyoid and sternomandibular muscles are not innervated by CN XI. The spinal accessory nerve does not innervate the omohyoid muscle, and the sternomandibular muscle is not a recognized muscle in the neck. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.